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AFCAT Exam Mock Test-2 2021: Practice AFCAT Online Mock Test-100 Questions of 300 Marks with Answer Key

Archana Shandilya

AFCAT Exam Mock Test-2 2021: AFCAT (1) 2021 Exam will be conducted by Indian Air Force on 20th & 21st Feb 2021 in online mode across different Examination Centres in India. Candidates must start practicing the mock tests for AFCAT (1) 2021 Exam to score high marks. Here, candidates can attempt AFCAT mock test based on the latest exam pattern and syllabus. AFCAT 2021 exam will consist of 100 Questions of 300 Marks for Non-technical candidates.

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AFCAT 2021 Mock Test-2: Online Exam-100 Questions of 300 Marks

Directions 1-3: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it:-

Recently, a newspaper article mourned the total disappearance of the common house sparrow. This was a comment on the city‟s perceptible move towards edging out the flora and fauna of the city. In the rapid urbanization, multi-storied apartments grew and large scale felling of trees became necessary. Last week, however, seven pairs of these sparrows were spotted in a suburb. Possibly the greenery of this place has created a new habitat for these birds which like their proximity to human beings, and have made a comeback. A systematic development of trees and shrubs all over the city could woo the absentee house sparrow to our midst.

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Q1. In the passage the term “urbanisation” has been used to refer to

(a) the destruction of the greenery in the city

(b) construction of concrete structures on a large scale

(c) a change over from the rural life to the city life

(d) the movement of people from villages to cities

Q2. The phrase “absentee house sparrow” refers to

(a) the sparrow that makes infrequent visits

(b) the sparrow that has forgotten its habitat

(c) the sparrow that has gone away from the urban areas

(d) the sparrow that has become extinct

Q3. According to the passage, the birds have made a comeback to the suburb because they

(a) have been hunted down by the village people

(b) Love to be amidst human beings

(c) get food only where human beings live

(d) they have been deliberately brought back by biologists

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Directions 4-9: Select the most appropriate word from the options against each number:-

Watermelons ..(4).. to India by the 4th century A.D. Sushruta, the great Indian physician, ….(5)…wrote Sushruta Samhit, mentions that watermelons were grown ..(6).. the banks of the river Indus. ….(7)....are also mentioned in ancient books. Sushruta calls it as Kalinda or Kalinga (hence Kalingad in Marathi). It was…(8)..to China in the 10th or 11th century and …(9)… it is grown throughout the tropics.

Q4. (a) came (b) go (c) arrived (d) started

Q5. (a) did (b) when (c) certainly (d) who

Q6. (a) above (b) outside (c) from (d) along

Q7. (a) it (b) they (c) some (d) that

Q8. (a) took (b) gave (c) taken (d) take

Q9. (a) also (b) though (c) now (d) tomorrow

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Directions 10-13: Choose the word which is nearest in meaning to the given word:-

Q10. Embellish

(a) Employ

(b) Arrange

(c) Decorate

(d) Design

Q11. Damp Squib

(a) Insignificant happening

(b) An old technique

(c) Unsuccessful attempt

(d) Short, shrill cry

Q12. Sagacious

(a) Stupid

(b) Truthful

(c) Lustful

(d) Discerning

Q13. Pontificate

(a) To speak authoritatively

(b) To raise to higher office

(c) To act clumsily

(d) To constitute

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Directions 14-17: Choose the word which is nearly opposite in meaning to the given word:-

Q14. Parsimonious

(a) Generous

(b) Selfish

(c) Religious

(d) Hereditary

Q15. Vindicate

(a) Censure

(b) Favour

(c) Indicate

(d) Eradicate

Q16. Sporadic

(a) Rare

(b) Frequent

(c) Sharp

(d) Coordinated

Q17. Exonerate

(a) Reject

(b) Contract

(c) Accuse

(d) Admit

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Directions 18-21: Choose the word that best defines the given phrases:-

Q18. Cloak and dagger

(a) To fight to a finish

(b) To get into unexpected trouble

(c) To end the hostility

(d) Like a spy

Q19. To be at the end of one‟s tether

(a) To feel offended

(b) To draw moral attention

(c) To have no resources left

(d) To think deeply

Q20. All agog

(a) Work helplessly

(b) Lose consciousness

(c) In a state of excitement

(d) Fall flat

Q21. Espirit de Corps

(a) Bravery

(b) Loyalty

(c) Subordination

(d) Unity

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Directions 22-25: Choose the correctly spelt word:-

Q22. (a) Omminous (b) Omineous (c) Ominous (d) Omenous

Q23. (a) Hindrance (b) Hinderance (c) Hindrence (d) Hinderence

Q24. (a) Perjery (b) Perjury (c) Purjury (d) Perjary

Q25. (a) Reminiscene (b) Reminiscence (c) Reminicence (d) Remeniscence

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Directions 26-29: Which word or words explains the meaning of the following idioms:-

Q26. A blue stocking

(a) Stocking which is blue in colour

(b) A clean cheat

(c) An unreliable person

(d) a woman having literary tastes and learning

Q27. Yeoman‟s service

(a) lip-service

(b) to serve like a slave

(c) to play god father

(d) efficient or useful help

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Q28. Lay bare

(a) Expose

(b) Take off all clothes

(c) Destroy

(d) Exploit

Q29. A wolf in sheep‟s clothing

(a) A hypocrite

(b) A wolf in woolen clothes

(c) A coward

(d) A proud man

Directions 30-65: Choose the most appropriate answer:-

Q30. The national emblem, viz four lions standing back to back is an adaptation from which of the following:-

(a) Sarnath lions

(b) Gir lions

(c) Khajurao

(d) Ajanta caves

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Q31. Who among the following is not a recipient of the „Bharatiya Jnanpith‟ Award?

(a) Ashapurna Devi

(b) MF Hussain

(c) Raghupati Sahay

(d) VK Gokak

Q32. Global 500 awards are given for outstanding achievement in which of the following fields?

(a) Population Control

(b) Elimination of illiteracy

(c) Campaigning against AIDS

(d) Protection of environment

Q33. Pulitzer Prize is awarded for the outstanding work in the field of

(a) Science and Technology

(b) Environmental Studies

(c) Literature and Journalism

(d) International Understanding

Q34. Who was the founder of Nanda dynasty?

(a) Bimbisara

(b) Mahapadma Nanda

(c) Ajatasatru

(d) Dhana Nanda

Q35. Which of the following books is written by Arnold Toynbee?

(a) Mankind and Mother Earth

(b) Tom Sawyer

(c) The Future of Freedom

(d) The Moon‟s Last Sigh

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Q36. The presidency of the UN Security Council rotates among the Council Members

(a) Every 6 months

(b) Every year

(c) Every 3 months

(d) Every month

Q37. Who were the contemporaries of the Gupta Kings in the south?

(a) Chola

(b) Rashtrakutas

(c) Satavahanas

(d) Vakatkas

Q38. Who was the person behind conversion of East India Company from a trading company into a regional power?

(a) Lord Warren Hastings

(b) Lord Clive

(c) Lord Dalhousie

(d) Lord Wellesley

Q39. Who inscribed the name of Khalifa of Baghdad on his coins?

(a) Ala-ud-din Khilji

(b) Iltutmish

(c) Qutub-ud-in Aibak

(d) Balban

Q40. Who among the following Sultans of Delhi assumed the title, „Sikandar-i-Sani?

(a) Balban

(b) Ala-ud-din Khilji

(c) Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq

(d) Sikander Lodhi

Q41. UN General Assembly recently declared 21st June as

(a) International Youth Day

(b) International Literacy Day

(c) International Day of Yoga

(d) International Day of Peace

Q42. The member countries of NAFTA are

(a) USA, Canada and Mexico

(b) Canada and Mexico

(c) USA and Canada

(d) Argentina and Brazil

Q43. Sandeep Sejwal won the Bronze medal in 2014 Asian Games in which of the following events?

(a) 200m backstroke

(b) 200m freestyle

(c) 50m breaststroke

(d) 50m butterfly

Q44. The Indian space programme began in

(a) 1961

(b) 1962

(c) 1965

(d) 1969

Q45. „Bachpan Bachao Andolan (BBA)‟, an organisation to protect the rights of children was founded by

(a) Amir Khan

(b) Kailash Satyarthi

(c) Om Prakash Gurjar

(d) Santa Sinha

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Q46. Mangalyan, Mars Orbiter Mission (MOM) was launched in

(a) Jan 2013

(b) Oct 2012

(c) Oct 2013

(d) Nov 2013

Q47. “Ruhr of India” known for its rich coal deposits is in the State of

(a) Uttar Pradesh

(b) Jharkhand

(c) West Bengal

(d) Bihar

Q48. Which of the following Subsonic missiles, test fired in October 2014 is considered India‟s answer to America‟s Tomahawk missile

(a) Brahmos Mk-2

(b) Prahaar

(c) Nirbhay

(d) Agni-V

Q49. Who among the following won the World Billiards Championship held in England in October 2014?

(a) Peter Gilchrist

(b) Pankaj Advani

(c) Saurav Kothari

(d) None of these

Q50. Which country will host the XXXI Olympic Games in 2016?

(a) Rio de Janeiro, Brazil

(b) Chicago, USA

(c) Tokyo, Japan

(d) Doha, Qatar

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Q51. The book, “A China Passage‟ was written by

(a) MJ Akbar

(b) Jagmohan

(c) Anees Jung

(d) John Kenneth Galbraith

Q52. A can do a piece of work in 20 days and B in 25 days. They work together for 5 days and then B goes away. In how many days will A finish the work?

(a) 11 days

(b) 9 days

(c) 20 days

(d) 21 days

Q53. Two train A & B each 66 meters long run parallel to each other in the same direction. Their speeds are 50 Kmph and 30 Kmph respectively. In what time A will completely pass B.

(a) 28 Sec

(b) 28.46 Sec

(c) 53.46 Sec

(d) 23.76 Sec

Q54. A train 77.5 m in length is running at the rate of 65 Kmph. Find the time taken by the train to pass the man walking in the same direction as the train @ 3 Kmph.

(a) 2.5 Sec

(b) 4.5 Sec

(c) 6.5 Sec

(d) 8 Sec

Q55. Ram can row 7½ Kmph in still water. If in a river running at 1.5 Km an hour, it takes him 50 minutes to row to a place and back, how far is the place?

(a) 3.5 Km

(b) 3 Km

(c) 4.5 Km

(d) 5 Km

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Q56. A motorboat with speed 15 Kmph in still water goes 30 Km downstream and comes back. It covers the distance in 4 hours and 30 minutes. The speed of the stream in Km/h is?

(a) 4

(b) 5

(c) 6

(d) 10

Q57. Zinc and copper are melted together in the ratio 9:11. What is the weight of the melted mixture, if 28.8 kg of zinc has been consumed in it?

(a) 58 Kg

(b) 60 Kg

(c) 64 Kg

(d) 70 Kg

Q58. A sells his goods 20% cheaper than B and 20% dearer than C. How much percentage is C‟s goods cheaper / dearer than B.

(a) 33.33%

(b) 50%

(c) 45.85%

(d) None of these

Q59. The average of 6 observations is 12. If the 7th observation is included, the average is reduced by 1. What will be the 7th observation?

(a) 4

(b) 5

(c) 6

(d) 7

Q60. If the incomes of Ram & Shyam are in the ratio of 3:4 and their expenditures in the ratio of 4:5, find the ratio of their savings, given that Shyam saves a third of his income.

(a) 10:15

(b) 13:20

(c) 15:20

(d) 13:15

Q61. The sum of ages of 4 children born at the interval of 2 years is 52. What is the age of the oldest child?

(a) 10 years

(b) 12 years

(c) 14 years

(d) 16 years

Q62. A certain sum under compound interest, compounded annually, amounts to Rs. 5500/- in 5 years and Rs. 6050/- in 6 years. What is the rate of interest?

(a) 12 ½ %

(b) 15%

(c) 20%

(d) 10%

Q63. Rs. 800 becomes Rs. 956 in 3 years at a certain rate of simple interest. If the rate of interest is increased by 4%, what amount will Rs. 800 becomes in 3 years?

(a) Rs 1020.80

(b) Rs 1025

(c) Rs 1052

(d) Rs 1000

Q64. A sum of money lent out at simple interest amounts to Rs 720 after 2 years and to Rs 1020 after a further period of 5 years. The sum is

(a) Rs 500

(b) Rs 600

(c) Rs 700

(d) Rs 750

Q65. Present age of X and Y are in the ratio 7:5 respectively. Four years hence, the ratio of their ages will become 11:9 respectively. What is the present age of Y?

(a) 1 year

(b) 7 year

(c) 5 year

(d) None of these

Directions 66-70: Each of these questions given below contains three elements. These elements may or may not have some inter-linkage. Each group of elements may fit into one of these diagrams at (a), (b), (c) or (d). You have to indicate the group of elements which correctly fits into the diagrams.

Q66. Which of the following diagrams indicates the best relation between Biology, Zoology and Physics?

Q67. Which of the following diagrams indicates the best relation between Stamp, Pen and Chalk?

Q68. Which of the following diagrams indicates the best relation between Singers, Athletes and Girls?

Q69. Which of the following diagrams indicates the best relation between Teachers, Women and Doctors?

Q70. Which of the following diagrams indicates the best relation between Clothes, Flowers and White?

Directions 71-75: In each of the following questions find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.

Q71. Cerebrum : Brain :: ?:?

(a) Aorta : Hand

(b) Ligament : Blood

(c) Ventricle : Heart

(d) Country : Universe

Q72. Monument : Cenotaph :: ?:?

(a) Orifice : Opening

(b) Guide : Follower

(c) Protect : Protocol

(d) Sponsor : Cleave

Q73. Meadow : Sheep :: ?:?

(a) Stable : Horse

(b) Hay : Insect

(c) Grass : Grasshopper

(d) Pasture : Cattle

Q74. Sadist : Injury :: ?:?

(a) Opportunist : Generosity

(b) Priest : Church

(c) Dentist : Teeth

(d) Thief : Robbery

Q75. Lecherous : Carnal :: ?:?

(a) Virile : Feeble

(b) Diatribe : Abuse

(c) Impede : Begin

(d) Sunder : Link

Directions 76-80: In each of the following questions, four words have been given out of which three are alike in some manner, while the fourth one is different. Choose the word which is different from the rest.

Q76. (a) Niger (b) Suez (c) Mississippi (d) Colorado

Q77. (a) Bang (b) Hiss (c) Whistle (d) Wink

Q78. (a) Gold (b) Silver (c) Bronze (d) Iron

Q79. (a) Mendicant (b) Ascetic (c) Pious (d) Hermit

Q80. (a) Bardoli (b) Bhadravati (c) Porbandar (d) Champaran

Directions 81-85: In each of the following questions, select a figure from amongst the four alternatives, which when placed in the blank space of figure (X) would complete the pattern.

Directions 86-90: Each of the following questions consists of five figures marked 1,2,3,4 and 5 called the Problem Figures followed by four other figures marked a, b, c and d called the Answer Figures. Select a figure from amongst the Answer Figures which will continue the same series as established by the five Problem Figures.

Directions 91-95: Each of the following questions consists of two sets of figures. Figures 1, 2, 3 and 4 constitute the Problem Set while figures a, b, c and d constitute the Answer Set. There is a definite relationship between figures (1) and (2). Establish a similar relationship between figures (3) and (4) by selecting a suitable figure from the Answer set that would replace the question mark (?) in fig (4).

Directions 96-100: In each problem, out of the four figures marked (a) (b) (c) and (d) three are similar in a certain manner. However, one figure is not like the other three. Choose the figure which is different from the rest.

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