SSC CHSL Previous Year Paper: 11th July 2019 Question Paper with Answers

SSC CHSL Tier-1 2019-20 Exam will be conducted in online mode from 16th to 27th March 2020. Candidates must practice SSC CHSL Previous Year Papers to score high marks in the Exam. So for the ease of the candidates, we are providing the SSC CHSL 11th July 2019 Question Paper including all the four sections - English Language, General Intelligence & Reasoning, Quantitative Aptitude and General Awareness. The answers of all the 100 questions are given below in the SSC CHSL 11th July 2019 Question Paper:

SSC CHSL Syllabus and Exam Pattern 2019-20: Tier I, II and III (LDC/ DEO)

English Language – 25 Questions of 2 marks each

Q.1 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

ACCURATE

1. real

2. genuine

3. sincere

4. precise

Answer: precise

Q.2 Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank.

As he crossed the desert he nearly ______ to thirst when he was forced to go without water for four days and five nights.

1. submerged

2. survived

3. subsisted

4. succumbed

Answer: succumbed

Q.3 Select the most appropriate word for the given group of words

One who draws or produces maps

1. photographer

2. designer

3. cartographer

4. draftsman

Answer: cartographer

Q.4 Identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error.

She was unable to produce sufficient evidences for support her accusations.

1. She was unable

2. to produce

3. support her accusations

4. sufficient evidences for

Answer:  sufficient evidences for

Q.5 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom make short work of something

1. reduce the size

2. dispose of quickly

3. shorten some dress

4. edit carefully

Answer:  dispose of quickly

Q.6 Select the correct indirect form of the given sentence.

The interviewer asked Ramesh, "Do you have any idea about our products?"

1. The interviewer asked Ramesh that if he had any idea about the products.

2. The interviewer asked Ramesh if they had any idea about his products.

3. The interviewer asked Ramesh if he have any idea about their products.

4. The interviewer asked Ramesh if he had any idea about their products.

Answer: The interviewer asked Ramesh if he had any idea about their products.

Q.7 Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank.

Once again, higher food inflation, in combination with fuel and power, provided ______ to the wholesale inflation.

1. insight

2. impetus

3. inspiration

4. impression

Answer: impetus

Direction 8 to 12: Comprehension: In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank.

If winter seems to be the season for migratory birds to flock to warmer climates, summer time is ideal for wetland birds. (1) ______ fifty kilometers from Warangal in Telangana, Pakhal lake (2) ______ to be playing host to (3) ______ wide variety of flora and fauna (4) ______ season. Wetland birds from North and Central India come (5) ______ the south in search of larger water bodies.

Q.8 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.1.

1. Totally

2. But

3. Not

4. Nearly

Answer: Nearly

Q.9 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.2.

1. will seems

2. seem

3. was seemed

4. seems

Answer: seems

Q.10 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.3.

1. an

2. a

3. the

4. one

Answer: a

Q.11 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.4.

1. this

2. that

3. their

4. these

Answer: this

Q.12 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.5.

1. towards

2. away

3. about

4. below

Answer: towards

Q.13 Select the wrongly spelt word.

1. fourteenth

2. fourtieth

3. seventeenth

4. fifteenth

Answer: fourtieth

Q.14 Select the most appropriate word for the given group of words

A person who sells and arranges cut flowers

1. botanist

2. florist

3. nutritionist

4. agriculturist

Answer: florist

Q.15 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

DEDICATION

1. determination

2. trepidation

3. commitment

4. contentment

Answer: commitment

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Q.16 Select the correctly spelt word.

1. manageable

2. manageable

3. manageable

4. managable

Answer: manageable

Q.17 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement.

My professor gave me a lot of useful advices when I was writing my research paper.

1. gave me a lot of useful advice

2. No improvement

3. gave me a lots of useful advices

4. give me lots of useful advices

Answer: gave me a lot of useful advice

Q.18 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom make no headway

1. forced to fix a new goal

2. unable to overtake anyone

3. check if the head can pass through

4. unable to progress ahead

Answer: unable to progress ahead

Q.19 Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word.

HOPE

1. confidence

2. despair

3. Daring

4. courage

Answer:  despair

Q.20 Identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error.

The team began searching for reasons for their poor performance in the tournament.

1. searching for reasons

2. The team began

3. for their poor performance

4. in the tournament

Answer: for their poor performance

Q.21 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Out of the given options pick the one that gives their correct order.

A. Using matches however came much later.

B. The first great discovery that man probably made was that of fire.

C. In olden times fires were made by rubbing two flints against each other till a spark was produced.

D. And this spark set fire to dry straw, leaves or wood.

1. BCDA

2. BDAC

3. CBDA

4. ADBC

Answer:  BCDA

Q.22 Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word.

ABSTRACT

1. vague

2. intangible

3. elusive

4. concrete

Answer: concrete

Q.23 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Out of the given options pick the one that gives their correct order.

A. We had already covered half the distance when we reached a three-road junction.

B. I was worried it might pounce on us.

C. But thankfully we picked up speed and it got left behind.

D. Suddenly, a barking dog began to chase the bike for some distance.

1. ABDC

2. BDAC

3. DACB

4. ADBC

Answer: ADBC

Q.24 Select the correct passive form of the given sentence.

Someone gave him a new case for his credit cards.

1. He has given a new case for his credit cards.

2. He is given a new case for his credit cards.

3. He had given a new case for his credit cards.

4. He was given a new case for his credit cards.

Answer: He was given a new case for his credit cards.

Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement.

The minister promise to looked into the matter of fuel emissions and air pollution.

1. No improvement

2. promise to looks into

3. promises to looking at

4. promised to look into

Answer: promised to look into

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General Intelligence & Reasoning – 25 Questions of 2 marks each

Q26. Which letter-pair will replace the question mark (?) in the following series?

FJ, HL, ? , LP, NR

1. IN

2. GM

3. JM

4. JN

Answer: JN

Q27. Select the option that is related to the third letter-pair in the same way as the second letter-pair is related to the first letter-pair.

DJ : HT : : HM : ?

1. LW

2. JK

3. LP

4. PY

Answer: LW

Q28. Three of the following four letter-clusters are alike in a certain way and one is different. Pick the odd one out.

1. DFHJ

2. CEGI

3. QSUV

4. JLNP

Answer: QSUV

Q29. A paper is folded and cut as shown in the following figure (). Select the option that depicts how this paper will appear when unfolded?

Q30. Select the answer Fig. that will come next in the following Problem Fig. series.

Q31. Three of the following four numbers are alike in a certain way and one is different.

Pick the number that is different from the rest.

1. 85

2. 65

3. 95

4. 75

Answer: 75

Q32. Select the number-pair in which the two numbers are related in the same way as are the two numbers of the following number-pair.

29, 31

1. 23, 25

2. 15, 17

3. 11, 13

4. 20, 21

Answer: 11, 13

Q33. What was the day of the week on 15 August 2013?

1. Monday

2. Wednesday

3. Thursday

4. Tuesday

Answer:  Thursday

Q34. Which two signs should be interchanged in the following equation to make it correct?

5 + 8 - 30 × 10 ÷ 2 = 240

1. + and –

2. × and ÷

3. + and ÷

4. × and -

Answer:  × and -

Q35. Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed to the right of the figure.

Q36. Select the Venn diagram that best illustrates the relationship between the following classes.

Rats, Frogs, Snakes

Q37. Select the word-pair in which the two words are related in the same way as are the two words in the following word-pair.

Cement : Building

1. Pen : Pencil

2. Wire : Electricity

3. Book : Author

4. Wood : Furniture

Answer:  Wood : Furniture

Q38. How many triangle are present in the following figure?

1. 10

2. 13

3. 9

4. 11

Answer: 11

Q39. Three of the following four words are alike in a certain way and one is different.

Pick the odd word out.

1. Jeep

2. Ship

3. Car

4. Truck

Answer: Ship

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Q40. Select the option in which the given figure (X) is embedded.

Q41. In a code language, GOURD is written as IQSTF. How will APHID be written as in that language?

1. CREKF

2. CRJKF

3. CRFKF

4. CRFLF

Answer: CRFKF

Q42. Arrange the following words in the sequence as they appear in English dictionery order.

1. Mercury

2. Earth

3. Jupiter

4. Venus

5. Mars

1. 2, 3, 5, 1, 4

2. 4, 2, 5, 3, 1

3. 1, 4, 2, 3, 5

4. 2, 3, 1, 5, 4

Answer: 2, 3, 5, 1, 4

Q43. Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following set.

(49, 81, 121)

1. (16, 25, 49)

2. (16, 64, 100)

3. (36, 64, 100)

4. (9, 4, 8)

Answer: (36, 64, 100)

Q44. ‘ENGINEER’ is related to ‘BUILDING’ in the same way as ‘WRITER’ is related to ‘_________’.

1. BOOK

2. PEN

3. INK

4. PAPER

Answer: BOOK

Q45. Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following set.

(16, 36, 64)

1. (12, 32, 50)

2. (10, 30, 58)

3. (6, 36, 80)

4. (9, 25, 62)

Answer:  (10, 30, 58)

Q46. Anil and Abhay are brothers. Swati is the daughter of Samir and sister of Anil. How is Abhay's mother related to Samir?

1. Sister-in-law

2. Sister

3. Mother

4. Wife

Answer: Wife

Q47. Which number will replace the question mark (?) in the following series?

2, 4, 7, 12, 19, 30, ?

1. 38

2. 47

3. 43

4. 36

Answer: 43

Q48. If BARBER is coded as 116 and GLINT is coded as 73, then how will LIZARD be coded as?

1. 92

2. 91

3. 90

4. 93

Answer: 92


Q50. Three statements are given, followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. Assuming the statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.

Statements:

All hens are eggs.
All birds are eggs.
All eggs are lions.

Conclusions:

I. All hens are lions.
II. Some lions are eggs.
III. All birds are lions.

1. All the conclusions follow.

2. Only conclusion I follows.

3. Only conclusions I and II follow.

4. Only conclusions II and III follow.

Answer: All the conclusions follow.

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Quantitative Aptitude – 25 Questions of 2 marks each

Q51. The full marks for a paper is 300. The break-up of the marks into theory (X), practical (Y) and (Z) project, which are the three components of evalution is 6 : 5 : 4. In order to pass one has to score at least 40%, 50% and 50% respectively in XYZ and 60% in aggregate. The marks scored by four students ABC and D are shown in the given Bar Graph.

How much percentage marks more than B has C scored in practical

1. 40

2. 20

3. 30

4. 60

Answer: 30

Q52. With reference to a number greater than one, the difference between itself and its reciprocal is 25% of the sum of itself and its reciprocal. By how much percentage (correct one decimal place) is the fourth power of the number greater than its square?

1. 62.5

2. 66.7

3. 64.5

4. 57.8

Answer: 66.7

Q53. AB and CD are two chords of a circle which intersect at a point O inside the circle. It is given that, AB = 10 cm, CO= 1.5 cm and DO = 12.5 cm. What is the ratio between the larger and smaller among AO and BO?

1. 3 : 2

2. 4 : 1

3. 7 : 3

4. 3 : 1

Answer: 3 : 1

Q54. During a practice session in a stadium an athlete runs along a circular track and her performance is observed by her coach standing at a point on the circle and also by her physiotherapist standing at the centre of the circle. The coach finds that she covers an angle of 72° in 1 min. What will be the angle covered by her in  1 second according to the measurement made by her physiotherapist?

1. 2.4

2. 1.2

3. 4.8

4. It depend on the position of the coach on the circular track

Answer: 2.4

Q55. The full marks for a paper is 300. The break-up of the marks into theory (X), practical (Y) and (Z) project, which are the three components of evalution is 6 : 5 : 4. In order to pass one has to score at least 40%, 50% and 50% respectively in XYZ and 60% in aggregate. The marks scored by four students ABC and D are shown in the given Bar Graph.

What is the average marks of the four students in theory?

1. 60

2. 65

3. 70

4. 68

Answer: 65

Q56. The value of

18.43 x 18.43 - 6.57 x 6.57 / 11.86 is:

1. 23.62

2. 26

3. 24.12

4. 25

Answer: 25

Q57. A purchased two articles for Rs.200 and Rs.300 respectively and sold at gains of 5% and 10% respectively. What was his overall gain percentage?

1. 8

2. 5

3. 9

4. 6

Answer: 8

Q58. A can complete a piece of work in 20 days and B can complete 20% of the work in 6 days. If they work together in how many days can they finish 50% of the work, if they work together?

1. 6

2. 8

3. 9

4. 12

Answer: 6

Q59. The ten digit number 2x600000y8 is exactly divisible by 24. If x ≠ 0 and y ≠ 0, then the least value of (x + y) is equal to:

1. 2

2. 5

3. 8

4. 9

Answer: 5

Q60. The average of 1088 real numbers is zero. At most how many of them can be negative?

1. 88

2. 100

3. 1087

4. 544

Answer: 1087

Q61. The two diagonals of a rhombus are respectively, 14 cm and 48 cm. The perimeter of the rhombus is equal to:

1. 100 cm

2. 160 cm

3. 80 cm

4. 120 cm

Answer: 100 cm

Q62. A certain sum was invested on simple interest. The amount to which it had grown in five years was 5/4 times the amount to which it had grown in three years. The percentage rate of interest was:

1. 15%

2. 25%

3. 20%

4. 10%

Answer: 20%

Q63. For all ∞ts(i = 1,2,3,...,20) lying between 0° and 90°, it is given that sin ∞1 + sin ∞2 + sin ∞3 + .....+ sin ∞20 = 20

What is the value (in degrees) of  (∞1 + ∞2 + ∞3 + .....+ ∞20 )

1. 900

2. 1800

3. 0

4. 20

Answer: 1800

Q64. The ration of the square of a number to the reciprocal of its cube is 243/16807

What is the number?

1. 2/7

2. 3/7

3. 5/7

4. 7/3

Answer: 3/7

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Q65. O,G,I and H are respectively the circumcentre, centroid, incentre and orthocentre of an equilateral triangle. Which of these points are indentical ?

1. O and I only

2. O,G,I and H

3. O and G only

4. O, G and H only

Answer: O,G,I and H

Q66. What is the value of cosec² 30° + sin² 45° + sec² 60° +tan² 30°?

1. 8

2. 53/6

3. 9

4. 25/3

Answer: 53/6

Q67. For 0° ≤ θ ≤ 90°, what is θ , when

√3cosec θ + sin θ = 1?

1. 0°

2. 30°

3. 45°

4. 90°

Answer: 90°

Q68. An article having marked price, Rs.900, was sold for Rs.648 after two successive discounts. The first discount was 20%. What was the percentage rate of the second discount?

1. 5

2. 15

3. 10

4. 12.5

Answer: 10

Q69. If 10/7 (1 - 2.43 X 10¯3) = 1.417 + x, then x is equal to:

1. 0.417

2. 0.81

3. 0.0081

4. 0.417

Answer: 0.0081

Q70. The simplified value of {5/4 of (7/3 ÷ 7/5) - 17/12} + 1/9 ÷ 7/3 + 2/7 + 1/6 is :

1. 1

2. 3/2

3. 7/3

4. 7/6

Answer: 7/6

Q71. The full marks for a paper is 300. The break-up of the marks into theory (X), practical (Y) and (Z) project, which are the three components of evalution is 6 : 5 : 4. In order to pass one has to score at least 40%, 50% and 50% respectively in XYZ and 60% in aggregate. The marks scored by four students ABC and D are shown in the given Bar Graph.

Who among the students could not pass?

1. B only

2. A only

3. B and C

4. B and D

Answer: B and D

Q72. If (3x + 1)³ + (x - 3)³ + (4 - 2x)³ + 6 (3x + 1) (x - 3) (x - 2) = 0, then x is equal to:

1. 1

2. -1

3. 1/2

4. -1/2

Answer: -1

Q73.  The full marks for a paper is 300. The break-up of the marks into theory (X), practical (Y) and (Z) project, which are the three components of evalution is 6 : 5 : 4. In order to pass one has to score at least 40%, 50% and 50% respectively in XYZ and 60% in aggregate. The marks scored by four students ABC and D are shown in the given Bar Graph.

Arrange the students B,C and D according to the ascending order of the aggregate marks scored by them.

1. B, C, D

2. B, D, C

3. D, B, C

4. C, D, B

Answer: B, D, C

Q74. The platform of a station 400 m long starts exactly where the last span of a bridge 1.2 km long ends. How long will a train 200 m long and travelling at the speed of 72 km/h take to cover the distance between the starting point of the span of the bridge and the far end of the platform?

1. 1.5 min

2. 1.2 min

3. 1.6 min

4. 1.8 min

Answer:  1.5 min

Q75. ABC DEF and their perimeters are 60 cm and 48 cm respectively. What is the length AB, if DE is equal to 9 cm?

1. 18 cm

2. 12 cm

3. 17.5 cm

4. 16 cm

Answer: 12 cm

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General Awareness – 25 Questions of 2 marks each

Q76. Which one of the following is NOT a tributary of river Kaveri?

1. Bhavani

2. Amravati

3. Kabini

4. Vaigai

Answer: Vaigai

Q77. Rovers Cup is associated with which of the following sports?

1. Lawn Tennis

2. Football

3. Snooker

4. Swimming

Answer: Football

Q78. The Samkhaya School of Philosophy was founded by ________.

1. Gautama

2. Kumarila Bhatta

3. Patanjali

4. Kapila

Answer: Kapila

Q79. Justice Rajinder Sachar Committee was set up to study ________.

1. the impact of globalisation on India

2. the environmental issues of the western ghats in India

3. the socio-economic status of Muslim community in India

4. the standards maintained by government hospitals in India

Answer: the socio-economic status of Muslim community in India

Q80. The head quarter of Federation Internationale de Football Association (FIFA) is located in _______.

1. Zurich

2. Paris

3. Madrid

4. Amsterdam

Answer: Zurich

Q81. The headquarters of computer technology giant, Intel is in ____________.

1. Frankfurt

2. Tokyo

3. London

4. California

Answer: Tokyo

Q82. Which one of the following lakes and their locations is INCORRECTLY matched?

1. Lonar-Maharashtra

2. Chilika-Andhra Pradesh

3. Loktak-Manipur

4. Roopkund-Uttarakhand

Answer: Lonar-Maharashtra

Q83. Who was sworn in as the new chief minister of Andhra Pradesh on 30th May 2019?

1. YS Jagan Mohan Reddy

2. Chandrababu Naidu

3. Raghuveera Reddy

4. Pawan Kalyan

Answer: YS Jagan Mohan Reddy

Q84. Pullela Gopichand is the chief national coach of the Indian ________ team as of June 2019.

1. Badminton

2. Archery

3. Basketball

4. Table tennis

Answer: Badminton

Q85. In May 2019, the kilogram was redefined for the first time in 130 years. It will now be redefined by a fundamental property of nature known as:

1. Magnetic Constant

2. Electric Constant

3. Planck's Constant

4. Gravitational Constant

Answer: Planck's Constant

Q86. Which of the following is a western flowing river?

1. Gomti

2. Krishna

3. Mahanadi

4. Sabarmati

Answer: Sabarmati

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Q87. In the context of the banking system in India, what does IFSC stand for?

1. Indian Functional System Calculation

2. Indian Financial System Code

3. Indian Financial Structural Code

4. Indian Financial Social Code

Answer:  Indian Financial System Code

Q88. Which of the following is an example of terrestrial habitat?

1. Grassland

2. Swamp

3. Lagoon

4. Pond

Answer: Grassland

Q89. Which of the following texts gives a detailed account of the kings of Kashmir?

1. Katha Sarit Sagar

2. Rajatarangini

3. Dipavamsa

4. Vinaya Pitaka

Answer: Rajatarangini

Q90. Which country has become the second country in the world to declare a climate and biodiversity emergency?

1. Canada

2. Norway

3. Ireland

4. Bhutan

Answer: Ireland

Q91. In the cabinet of the 17th Lok Sabha, who has been appointed as the Finance Minister?

1. Nirmala Sitharaman

2. Rajnath Singh

3. Amit Shah

4. Smriti Irani

Answer:   Nirmala Sitharaman

Q92. Which of the following dances is in UNESCO's Intangible Heritage List?

1. Jhoomar

2. Chhau

3. Dalkhai

4. Fugdi

Answer: Chhau

Q93. In the context of the Internet, what is the full form of MAN?

1. Massive Area Network

2. Makeshift Area Network

3. Master Area Network

4. Metropolitan Area Network

Answer: Metropolitan Area Network

Q94. Who among the following was re-elected as the Prime Minister of Israel April 2019?

1. Benjamin Netanyahu

2. Imad Khamis

3. Ranil Wickremesinghe

4. Sheikh Hasina

Answer: Benjamin Netanyahu

Q95. Who was the founder of Bahujan Samaj Party?

1. Lakshman Singh

2. Kanshi Ram

3. Devi Lal

4. Munshi Ram

Answer: Kanshi Ram

Q96. Hypokalaemia is caused by the deficiency of ________.

1. Calcium

2. Iodine

3. Potassium

4. Iron

Answer:  Potassium

Q97. Which of the following classical dances and their places of origin is INCORRECTLY matched?

1. Sattriya-Assam

2. Bharatanatym-Tamilnadu

3. Mohiniattam-Kerala

4. Kuchipudi-Odisha

Answer: Kuchipudi-Odisha

Q98. According to which Article of the Constitution of India shall the council of ministers be collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha?

1. Article 35

2. Article 302

3. Article 75

4. Article 29

Answer: Article 75

Q99. Who among the following was included in Facebook 'Hall of Fame 2019' for detetcing a Whatapp Bug that violated privacy of a user?

1. Jeje Lalpekula

2. Baichung Bhutia

3. Sonam Wangchuk

4. Zonel Sougaijam

Answer: Zonel Sougaijam

Q100. The Salal Project is constructed on the river:

1. Manjra

2. Chenab

3. Bhima

4. Krishna

Answer: Chenab

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