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SSC CHSL Previous Year Paper: 9th July 2019 Question Paper with Answers

SSC will conduct CHSL Tier-1 2019-20 Exam in online mode from 16th to 27th March 2020 across India. To score high marks, candidates must practice SSC CHSL Previous Year Papers. So for the ease of the candidates, we have provided the SSC CHSL 9th July 2019 Question Paper including all the four sections - English Language, Quantitative Aptitude, General Intelligence & Reasoning and General Awareness. The answers of all the 100 questions are given below in the SSC CHSL 9th July 2019 Question Paper:

SSC CHSL Syllabus and Exam Pattern 2019-20: Tier I, II and III (LDC/ DEO)

English Language – 25 Questions of 2 marks each

Q1. Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom

draw a blank

1. be happy about something

2. be lucky in a game

3. be unable to sketch

4. be unsuccessful

Answer:  be unsuccessful

Q2. Select the most appropriate word for the given group of words

The statistical study of the population

1. psychology

2. demography

3. anthropology

Trending Now

4. sociology

Answer: demography

Q3. Select the correct passive form of the given sentence.

They will not allow mobile phones in the examination hall.

1. Mobile phones are not being allowed in the examination hall.

2. Mobile phones were not allowed in the examination hall.

3. Mobile phones are not allowed in the examination hall.

4. Mobile phones will not be allowed in the examination hall.

Answer: Mobile phones will not be allowed in the examination hall.

Q4. Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement.

If I does not pay my post-paid mobile bill by tomorrow I will probably have to pay a fine.

1. If I do not pay

2. No improvement

3. If I had not paid

4. If I has not paid

Answer:   If I do not pay

Q5. Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank.

It is not ______ of language that makes one an ineffective speaker; it is the dearth of ideas.

1. difficulty

2. poverty

3. complexity

4. intricacy

Answer: poverty

Q6. Select the correctly spelt word.

1. turbulence

2. turbulence

3. turbulence

4. turbulence

Answer:  turbulence

Q7. Given below are four jumbled sentences. Out of the given options pick the one that gives their correct order.

A. Today, man is master of the world and he makes the animals do what he likes.

B. Others he eats; and those like the lion and the tiger, he shoots for pleasure.

C. Early man, when he first came, must have been surrounded by many huge animals, and he must have lived in fear of them.

D. Some he tames like the horse, the cow, the elephant, the dog, the cat and so many others.

1. CBDA

2. ACBD

3. CADB

4. BCDA

Answer:  CADB

Direction 8 to 12: Comprehension: In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank.

After a lesson on negative sentences, a pupil tells his teacher, "I ain't got no pencils." She corrects him immediately saying, "The correct way to say (1) ______ is, "I don't have any pencils". "We don't (2) ______ any pencils." "He (3) ______ have any pencils. They don't have any pencils. (4) ______ you understand?" asks the teacher. "No," the boy wers, astonished. "(5) ______ happened to all the pencils?"

Q8. Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.1.

1. it

2. them

3. those

4. which

Answer:  it

Q9. Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.2.

1. having

2. has

3. had

4. have

Answer:  have

Q10. Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.3.

1. doesn't

2. don't

3. do

4. does

Answer:  doesn't

Q11. Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.4.

1. Do

2. Does

3. Doesn't

4. Have

Answer:  Do

Q12. Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.5.

1. How

2. Which

3. Where

4. What

Answer:  What

Q13. Given below are four jumbled sentences. Out of the given options pick the one that gives their correct order.

A. But now that his father had asked him to fetch some cheroots, he would have to pass by the high school to reach the shop.

B. The teachers and students would all be there, and he was ashamed of being seen outdoors.

C. Of late Krishna had confined himself to the four walls of the house.

D. Wondering how to get past the school unnoticed, he slowly ventured out.

1. DACB

2. CBDA

3. ACBD

4. CABD

Answer: CABD

Q14. Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement.

The express bus generally stops at only the major towns on the route.

1. generally stop in only the major towns

2. No improvement

3. generally stopping on only the major towns

4. generally stopped from only the major towns

Answer:  No improvement

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Q15. Select the most appropriate word for the given group of words

A person who is skilled at writing beautifully

1. painter

2. cartoonist

3. artist

4. calligrapher

Answer: calligrapher

Q16. Select the correct indirect form of the given sentence.

The doctor told his patient, "Continue the same course of medicines for the next week."

1. The doctor told his patient to continued the same course of medicines in the next week.

2. The doctor told his patient for continuing the same course of medicines for the next week.

3. The doctor told his patient that he may continue the same course of medicines in the following week.

4. The doctor told his patient to continue the same course of medicines for the following week.

Answer:  The doctor told his patient to continue the same course of medicines for the following week.

Q17. Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom

late in the day

1. too delayed to be of any use

2. too ripe to eat

3. too dark to see anything

4. too old to work

Answer:  too delayed to be of any use

Q18. Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word.

CHRONIC

1. infrequent

2. regular

3. routine

4. continuing

Answer: infrequent

Q19. Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

FLEETING

1. complete

2. lasting

3. momentary

4. ready

Answer:  momentary

Q20. Identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error.

The two states frequently has differences over the use of the river water especially during the summer months.

1. has differences

2. especially during the summer months

3. over the use of the river water

4. The two states frequently

Answer:  has differences

Q21. Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word.

MENTAL

1. strength

2. physical

3. brainy

4. ability

Answer:  physical

Q22. Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

ANOMALOUS

1. indirect

2. peculiar

3. unhealthy

4. common

Answer:  peculiar

Q23. Select the wrongly spelt word.

1. triangulation

2. resentment

3. commencement

4. continuation

Answer:  comencement

Q24. Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank.

The Chairman advised them to build a bridge between the two companies using ______ and compromise.

1. competition

2. negotiation

3. control

4. strength

Answer: negotiation

Q25. Identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error.

The childrens are fond of climbing the mango tree in the garden.

1. The childrens

2. climbing the mango tree

3. in the garden

4. are fond of

Answer:  The childrens

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General Intelligence & Reasoning – 25 Questions of 2 marks each

Q26. Sona is sister of Ramesh and daughter of Mohit. Rama is wife of Mohit and Mother of Prabhat.

How Ramesh is related to Prabhat?

1. Father

2. Son

3. Brother

4. Cousin

Answer:  Brother

Q27. In a code language, MYCOLOGY is written as PBFRORJV. How will AMMONIA be written as in that language?

1. DPQRQLD

2. DPPRQLX

3. CPPSQJX

4. DPJRQLX

Answer: DPPRQLX

Q28. Select the figure that will come next in the following figure series.

Q29. Select the word-pair in which the two words are related in the same way as are the two words in the following word-pair.

Important : Essential

1. Never : Always

2. Up : Down

3. Pick : Drop

4. Awful : Horrible

Answer: Awful : Horrible

Q30. Select the Venn diagram that best illustrates the relationship between the following classes.

Doctors, Males, Brothers

Q31. What will be the day of the week on 15 August 2021?

1. Monday

2. Wednesday

3. Sunday

4. Saturday

Answer: Sunday

Q32. Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following set.

(16, 4, 80 )

1. (6, 4, 40 )

2. (13, 5, 78 )

3. (5, 5, 70 )

4. (11, 7, 77 )

Answer: (13, 5, 78 )

Q33. Three of the following four letter-clusters are alike in a certain way and one is different. Pick the odd one out.

1. NPR

2. HJL

3. BDF

4. SUV

Answer: SUV

Q34. A paper is folded and cut as shown in the following problem figure (X, Y and Z). Select the answer figure that depicts how the paper will appear when unfolded.

Q35. Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at the bottom of the figure.

Q36. Three of the following four numbers are alike in a certain way and one is different. Pick the number that is different from the rest.

1. 73

2. 71

3. 87

4. 59

Answer: 87

Q37. Select the combination of letters that when sequentially placed in the gaps of the given letter series will complete the series.

OL, QO, __, UU, WX

1. RS

2. SU

3. ST

4. SR

Answer: SR

Q38. Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following set.

(7, 4, 65 )

1. (5, 4, 41 )

2. (6, 4, 70 )

3. (9, 6, 80 )

4. (11, 8, 105 )

Answer: (5, 4, 41 )

Q39. Select the number-pair in which the two numbers are related in the same way as are the two numbers of the following number-pair.

13 : 65

1. 12 : 45

2. 17 : 42

3. 19 : 95

4. 21 : 85

Answer:  19 : 95

Q40. Three of the following four words are alike in a certain way and one is different.

Pick the odd word out.

1. Cow

2. Wolf

3. Goat

4. Cat

Answer:  Wolf

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Q41. These different positions of the same dice are shown. Select the option that will be opposite to the face having '$'.

1. #

2. €

3. ©

4. &

Answer:

Q42. Which two signs and two numbers should be interchanged in the following equation to make it correct?

18 + 25 - 10 × 10 ÷ 5 = 203

1. + and - , 18 and 25

2. + and ÷ , 18 and 5

3. × and - , 18 and 25

4. × and ÷ , 25 and 5

Answer:  × and - , 18 and 25

Q43. Select the option in which the given figure X is embedded. (Rotation not allowed)

Q44. Select the option that is related to the third letter-cluster in the same way as the second letter-cluster is related to the first letter-cluster.

Ginger : Stem : : Chilli : ?

1. Fruit

2. Root

3. Flower

4. Stem

Answer: Fruit

Q45. Which number will replace the question mark (?) in the following series?

6, 10, 26, 62, ?

1. 92

2. 126

3. 216

4. 112

Answer: 126

Q46. Three statements are given, followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. Assuming the statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.

Statements:

All eggs are hens.

All hens are birds.

All birds are crows.

Conclusions:

I. All eggs are crows.

II. All hens are crows.

III. Some crows are birds.

1. Only conclusion II and III follow.

2. Only conclusion I and II follow.

3. All conclusions I, II and III follow.

4. Only conclusion I follows.

Answer:  All conclusions I, II and III follow.

Q47. Arrange the following words in a logical and meaningful order.

1. Childhood

2. Adulthood

3. Infancy

4. Adolescence

5. Senility

1. 4, 5, 1, 3, 2

2. 5, 3, 1, 4, 2

3. 3, 1, 4, 2, 5

4. 3, 2, 4, 1, 5

Answer: 3, 1, 4, 2, 5

Q48. How many triangle are present in the following figure?

1. 9

2. 13

3. 10

4. 12

Answer: 10

Q49. ‘Lizard’ is related to ‘Reptiles’ in the same way as ‘Toad’ is related to ‘____’.

1. Vertibreta

2. Reptiles

3. Mammals

4. Amphibians

Answer: Amphibians

Q50. If RUBY is coded as 264 and PAY is coded as 126, then how will RUPAY be coded as?

1. 81

2. 145

3. 375

4. 405

Answer: 405

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Quantitative Aptitude – 25 Questions of 2 marks each

Q51. If is an acute angle, and it is given that 5 sinΘ + 12 cosΘ = 13, then what is the value of tanΘ ?

1. 5/13

2. 12/13

3. 5/12

4. 13/12

Answer: 5/12

Q52. If A, B and c can respectively complete a piece of work in 20, 24 and 36 days respectively, how many days will they take to complete the work, if they work together ?

1. 360/43

2. 25/1

3. 37/4

4. 159/20

Answer:  360/43

Q53. The given Bar Graph presents the scale (in 1000 kg) of a particular brand of tea by three outlets, A, B and C during the months Jan, Feb, Mar, and Apr, 2018.

What is the ratio of rate of growth in sales from B to the rate of growth in sales from C in Mar 2018 with reference to its previous month?

1. 10 : 21

2. 10 : 19

3. 9 : 19

4. 9: 16

Answer: 10 : 21

Q54.  If I travel by bus, I reach my office 15 min late, and if I travel by car, I reach 10 min early. If the distance between my home and my office is 25 km, then the difference of the reciprocals of average speeds of the bus, in second per metre is:

1. 3/20

2. 3/50

3. 3/25

4. 3/10

Answer: 3/50

Q55. The given Bar Graph presents the scale (in 1000 kg) of a particular brand of tea by three outlets, A, B and C during the months Jan, Feb, Mar, and Apr, 2018.

What is the average scale per month by a during Jan-Mar, 2018?

1. 7505 kg

2. 7334.67 kg

3. 5500 kg

4. 7333.33 kg

Answer:  7333.33 kg

Q56. The given Bar Graph presents the scale (in 1000 kg) of a particular brand of tea by three outlets, A, B and C during the months Jan, Feb, Mar, and Apr, 2018.

Arrange the ratio of sales from B to that from A and C, taken together, month wise in ascending order

1. Jan, Mar, Feb, Apr

2. Jan, Feb, Mar, Apr

3. Jan, Mar, Apr, Feb

4. Jan, Apr, Mar, Feb

Answer: Jan, Mar, Apr, Feb

Q57. Which among the following increases continously in the range 0° < Θ < 90° ?

1. cosΘ

2. tanΘ

3. cotΘ

4. cosecΘ

Answer: tanΘ

Q58. If (3x + 1)³ + (x - 3)³ + (2x - 4)³ = 6(3x + 1) (x - 3) (x - 2), then x is equal to:

1. 1

2. 2

3. -1/3

4. 3

Answer: 1

Q59. The value of the expression 1/4 {(a + 1/a)² - (a - 1/a)²} is :

1. 1

2. 4

3. 1/4

4. 1/2

Answer: 1

Q60. Two items are sold for Rs.18,602, each. On one item there has been a gain of 31% and on the second item a loss of 29%. What was the overall loss or gain in the transaction?

1. Gain 8.25%

2. loss 7.91%

3. loss 8.25%

4. Gain 7.91%

Answer:  loss 7.91%

Q61. An article is sold for Rs.688.16 after two successive discounts of 12% and 8% respectively. what is its marked price ?

1. Rs.900

2. Rs.850

3. Rs.820

4. Rs.800

Answer: Rs.850

Q62. The given Bar Graph presents the scale (in 1000 kg) of a particular brand of tea by three outlets, A, B and C during the months Jan, Feb, Mar, and Apr, 2018.

by how much quantity is the average sale per month from B more or less than that from C ?

1. More by 1000 kg

2. Less by  1000 kg

3. More by 500 kg

4. Less by 800 kg

Answer: More by 1000 kg

Q63. In a stadium an athlete is running on a circular path with uniform speed during a practice session. The angle covered by him during one second is found to be 10° by a coach observing him from the centre of the circular track. What would be the measure of angle (in degrees) described by the athlete by an observer standing on the circle ?

1. It depends on the exact position of the observer on the circle

2. 5

3. 10

4. 20

Answer: 5

Q64. The simplified value of 7/3 of (3/5 ÷ 2/9 ) - (22/5 + 19/20  ÷ 1/2) is :

1. 1

2. 0

3. 1/2

4. 1/4

Answer: 0

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Q65. In a triangle ABC, PQ is a straight line parallel to AC, such that Area ABC : Area PBQ = 3 : 1 Then CB : CQ is equal to:

1. √3/2 (√3+1)

2. √3-2/2

3. √3/2 (√3-1)

4. √3/2

Answer: √3/2 (√3+1)

Q66. The circumcentre, incentre, orthocentre and the centroid of a triangle are one and the same point. The triangle must be:

(a) isosceles

(b) right-angled

(c) right-angled isosceles

(d) equilateral

1. (c)

2. (a)

3. (d)

4. (b)

Answer: (d)

Q67. The average of a number and its reciprocal is 4. The average of its cube and its reciprocal is equal to:

1. 244

2. 288

3. 142

4. 256

Answer: 244

Q68. For an examination of a practical based object, the total marks is 100. The break-up for theory, practical, project and viva voce is 40%, 30%, 20%, 10% . A candidate scored 80% in theory, 70% in practical, 60% in project and 50% in viva voce. What was her aggregate percentage ?

1. 72

2. 67

3. 68

4. 70

Answer: 70

Q69. If  a : b : c = 1 : 3 : 5, what is the value of 4a - b + 2c / 3(a+b+c) ?

1. 10/27

2. 8/27

3. 1/3

4. 11/27

Correct  answer: 11/27

Q70. The simplified value of  1.0025 + 6.25 x 10¯6  / 0.0025 + 0.95 is :

1. 1.0505

2. 1.0525

3. 1.0005

4. 1.0025

Answer:  1.0525

Q71. The Seven digit number 78 x 1 y 68 is divisible by 88. The value of (x + y) is:

1. 13

2. 10

3. 14

4. 11

Answer: 11

Q72. For Θ being an acute angle it is given that, 3(cosec²Θ + cot² Θ) = 5. Then Θ is equal to :

1. 30°

2. 60°

3. 0°

4. 45°

Answer: 60°

Q73. The diagonals of a rhombus are respectively 4 cm and 12 cm. Its area (in cm²) is equal to :

1. 8

2. 36

3. 12

4. 24

Answer: 24

Q74. Two chords AB and CD of a circle intersect at a point O inside the circle. It is given that AO = 1 cm, AB = 13 cm, CD = 8 cm. What is the ratio between the larger and smaller section among CO and OD

1. 5 : 3

2. 3 : 1

3. 11 : 5

4. 9 : 7

Answer: 3 : 1

Q75. A certain sum invested on compound interest grows to Rs. 8,000 and Rs. 27,000 in three and six years, respectively when the interest is compounded annually. what is the percentage rate of interest ?

1. 10

2. 0.5

3. 25

4. 50

Answer: 50

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General Awareness – 25 Questions of 2 marks each

Q76. Which of the following is NOT an anti-virus software?

1. Norton

2. Kaspersky

3. Avast

4. Linux

Answer: Linux

Q77. A savings fund in which both, the employer and the employee contribute regularly in the interest of the employee is known as:

1. Balanced Fund

2. Index Fund

3. Provident Fund

4. Mutual Fund

Answer:  Provident Fund

Q78. Who was appointed as the new Director General of Inter Service Intelligence (ISI) of Pakistan in June 2019?

1. Rizwan Akhtar

2. Hamid Gul

3. Faiz Hameed

4. Riaz Hussain

Answer:  Faiz Hameed

Q79. According to Randsatnd Employer Brand Research 2019 Report, which of the following has been rated as India's most attractive employer brand?

1. Amazon India

2. Microsoft

3. Samsung

4. Larsen and Toubro

Answer:  Amazon India

Q80. The National Institute of Mental Health and Neuro Sciences (NIMH) is located in:

1. Kolkata

2. Indore

3. Bengaluru

4. Puducherry

Answer:  Bengaluru

Q81. Who is the author of the book 'The End of Imagination'?

1. Chetan Bhagat

2. Amitav Ghosh

3. Arundhati Roy

4. Shobha De

Answer: Arundhati Roy

Q82. With which of the following sports is the Derby Trophy associated?

1. Snooker

2. Chess

3. Horse Racing

4. Golf

Answer: Horse Racing

Q83. Burzahom, the neolithic site, is located in ________.

1. Karnataka

2. Jammu and Kashmir

3. Mizoram

4. Goa

Answer:  Jammu and Kashmir

Q84. Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India is associated with the election of the President of India?

1. Article 103

2. Article 78

3. Article 74

4. Article 54

Answer:  Article 54

Q85. Who among the following was appointed as the first Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha?

1. Vithalbhai J Patel

2. G V Mavalankar

3. V Narahari Rao

4. M. Ananthasayanam Ayyangar

Answer:  M. Ananthasayanam Ayyangar

Q86. 'Freedom in Exile' is the autobiography of :

1. Dalai Lama

2. Mahatma Gandhi

3. Nelson Mandela

4. Jiddu Krishnamurti

Answer:  Dalai Lama

Q87. India and Asia's first Dolphin Research Centre will be set up in ________.

1. Haridwar

2. Patna

3. Varanasi

4. Devprayag

Answer:  Patna

Q88. Which of the following rivers originates from Mahabaleshwar?

1. Tapi

2. Krishna

3. Cauvery

4. Sabarmati

Answer: Krishna

Q89. The Hirakud Dam is built across the river:

1. Mahanadi

2. Tungabhadra

3. Koyna

4. Damodar

Answer: Mahanadi

Q90. Which of the following companies is a Navratna company?

1. Coal India Limited

2. Engineers India Limited

3. Steel Authority of India Limited

4. Rashtriya Chemicals and Fertilizers Limited

Answer: Engineers India Limited

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Q91. With reference to Remote Sensing Technology, what does LIDAR stand for?

1. Light Direction and Revolving

2. Light Distraction and Refraction

3. Light Dimension and Reflection

4. Light Detection and Ranging

Answer: Light Detection and Ranging

Q92. Which of the following is a ProKabbadi Team?

1. Delhi Capitals

2. Telugu Titans

3. Sunrisers Hyderabad

4. Mumbai Indi

Answer:  Telugu Titans

Q93. The 1979 Cricket World Cup was won by _________.

1. Australia

2. West Indies

3. England

4. Sri Lanka

Answer:  West Indies

Q94. In which of the following states is Ashtamudi Lake situated?

1. Andhra Pradesh

2. Odisha

3. Kerala

4. Tamil Nadu

Answer:  Kerala

Q95. Which of the followings, is NOT a Peninsular river?

1. Mahanadi

2. Narmada

3. Krishna

4. Alaknanda

Answer:  Alaknanda

Q96. Who among the following first trlated the 'Bhagvad Gita' into English?

1. Charles Wilkins

2. George Yule

3. Max Muller

4. Vincent Arthur Smith

Answer: Charles Wilkins

Q97. Which of the following vehicles launched the RISAT-2B satellite in May 2019 from Satish Dhawan Space Centre?

1. PSLV- C41

2. PSLV-C42

3. PSLV-C26

4. PSLV-C46

Answer: PSLV-C46

Q98. Which of the following is a supercomputer developed by India?

1. Venngage

2. Onshape

3. Param Yuva 2

4. Pixir

Answer: Param Yuva 2

Q99. Which of the following temples is correctly matched with its location?

1. Baidyanathdham-Odisha

2. Trimbakeshwar-Karnataka

3. Mallikarjuna-Andhra Pradesh

4. Somnath-Bihar

Answer:  Mallikarjuna-Andhra Pradesh

Q100. Who among the following was appointed as the first Viceroy of British India?

1. Lord Irwin

2. Lord Mayo

3. Lord Wavell

4. Lord Canning

Answer:  Lord Canning

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