UGC NET Social Medicine & Community Health Previous Year Paper: Practice UGC NET July 2018 Paper-2 with Answer Keys
UGC NET Social Medicine & Community Health Previous Year Paper: Candidates can score high marks in UGC NET Social Medicine & Community Health Paper-2 by practicing previous year papers in online mode. This will help the candidates to improve their speed of attempting questions with accuracy in UGC NET Exam. In this article, we have shared the UGC NET Paper-2 Social Medicine & Community Health Previous Year Paper held in July 2018 alongwith their answers.
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| UGC NET July 2018 Paper-2 Social Medicine & Community Health Previous Year Paper with Answers |
1. Exposure to noise above which of the following dB levels causes permanent hearing loss as it may rupture the tympanic membrane:
(1) Over 60 dB
(2) Over 90 dB
(3) Over 100 dB
(4) Over 160 dB
Answer: (4)
2. As per ICRP recommendation the radiation dose to the whole population from all sources additional to the natural background should not exceed:
(1) 3 rems over a period of 10 years
(2) 5 rems over a period of 20 years
(3) 3 rems over a period of 30 years
(4) 5 rems over a period of 30 years
Answer: (4)
3. Corrected effective temperature in which a person feels pleasant and cool is:
(1) 20°C
(2) 23°C
(3) 26°C
(4) 28°C
Answer: (1)
4. The number of Community Health Centres (CHCs) in the country as on 31/3/17 were:
(1) 4000 – 5000
(2) 5000 – 6000
(3) 6000 – 7000
(4) 7000 – 8000
Answer: (2)
5. The number of sub-centres without both ANMs and Health Workers-Male as on 31 March 2017 in the country are:
(1) 1000 – 3000
(2) 3000 – 5000
(3) 5000 – 7000
(4) 7000 – 9000
Answer: (2)
6. According to WHO 2012 if
Fasting Plasma Glucose is <126 mg/100 ml and 2 hours plasma glucose after ingestion of 75 gm oral glucose load is 140 mg/100 ml to 200 mg/100 ml the diagnosis is:
(1) Diabetes
(2) Impaired Glucose Tolerance
(3) Impaired Fasting Glucose
(4) Normal
Answer: (2)
7. Body mass index (Quetelet’s index) is:
(1) Weight Kg/Height2 m
(2) Weight Kg/Height m
(3) Weight2 Kg/Height m
(4) Weight2 Kg/Height2 m
Answer: (1)
8. The term ‘Hidden Hunger’ refers to:
(1) Hunger amongst tribal communities
(2) Hunger amongst war torn area residents
(3) Micronutrient deficiency
(4) Severe malnutrition in young children
Answer: (3)
9. Which of the following is correct about type A sub-centre?
(1) Facilities for conducting deliveries are there in the centre
(2) There is good connectivity with the catchment areas
(3) Case load of deliveries is high > 20 deliveries/month
(4) The ANMs at the centre should mandatorily be Skilled Birth Attendants (SBAs) trained
Answer: (4)
10. In standard normal curve mean ±2 SD covers % of curve:
(1) 50%
(2) 75%
(3) 95%
(4) 99%
Answer: (3)
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11. Registration of pregnancy within 12 weeks is primary responsibility of:
(1) ASHA worker
(2) Gram sevika
(3) ANM
(4) AWW
Answer: (3)
12. No. of chromosomes in normal human Karyotype is:
(1) 40
(2) 45
(3) 46
(4) 50
Answer: (3)
13. Jaggery is rich in:
(1) Folic acid
(2) Vit. C
(3) Iron
(4) Calcium
Answer: (3)
14. Which of the following is not a phase in family cycle?
(1) Formation
(2) Extension
(3) Maturation
(4) Contraction
Answer: (3)
15. Human development index value ranges between:
(1) 0 to 100
(2) 0 to 10
(3) 0 to 1
(4) 0 to 0.5
Answer: (3)
16. Under the National Programme, NCD clinic is established at:
(1) Anganwadi
(2) Sub-centre
(3) PHC
(4) CHC
Answer: (4)
17. Which of the following is dead end infection?
(1) Rubella
(2) Tetanus
(3) TB
(4) Typhoid
Answer: (2)
18. The Hindu god of medicine is:
(1) Atreya
(2) Charaka
(3) Dhanvantari
(4) Vaghbhatt
Answer: (3)
19. Kyasanur forest disease is transmitted by:
(1) House fly
(2) Sand fly
(3) Hard tick
(4) Soft tick
Answer: (3)
20. MTP act allows aboration upto:
(1) 10 weeks
(2) 12 weeks
(3) 16 weeks
(4) 20 weeks
Answer: (4)
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21. Which of the following is true for Live Vaccines?
(a) Live vaccines are generally more potent than killed vaccines.
(b) Live vaccines have all major antigenic components but may lack in minor antigenic components.
(c) Live vaccines should not be administered to persons with immune deficiency diseases.
(d) All live vaccines require regular administration of booster doses.
Code:
(1) (a), (b) and (d) are correct
(2) (a), (c) and (d) are correct
(3) (a) and (d) are correct
(4) (a) and (c) are correct
Answer: (4)
22. Which of the following epidemiological features are true about AIDS?
(a) HIV can be transmitted by mosquito bites.
(b) Maternofetal transmission is the most common mode of transmission.
(c) I.V. drug users are at increased risk.
(d) Health-care workers are at higher risk of getting infection.
Code:
(1) (a), (b) and (d) are correct
(2) (a), (b) and (c) are correct
(3) (c) and (d) are correct
(4) (b) and (c) are correct
Answer: (3)
23. Which of the following characteristics are present in mentally healthy persons?
(a) Able to like and trust others
(b) Able to meet the demands of life
(c) Unable to accept his short-comings
(d) Has self respect
Code:
(1) (a) and (b) are correct
(2) (a) and (d) are correct
(3) (a), (b) and (d) are correct
(4) (a), (c) and (d) are correct
Answer: (3)
24. Which of the following statements correctly describe a ‘mob’?
(a) A crowd with a leader
(b) It is stable
(c) Lacks internal organization
(d) Has a symbol like a flag
Code:
(1) (a), (b) and (c) are correct
(2) (a), (c) and (d) are correct
(3) (b) and (c) are correct
(4) (b) and (d) are correct
Answer: (2)
25. Vector indices used for malaria are:
(a) Human blood index
(b) Breteau index
(c) Inoculation rate
(d) Chandler’s index
Code:
(1) (a) and (c) are correct
(2) (b) and (d) are correct
(3) (a), (b) and (c) are correct
(4) (c) and (d) are correct
Answer: (1)
26. Indications of platelet transfusion in a case of dengue haemorrhagic fever are:
(a) Platelets lesser than 40,000/cmm
(b) Prolonged shock with coagulopathy
(c) Hematocrit rise more than 10%
(d) Systemic massive bleeding
Code:
(1) (a) and (c) are correct
(2) (b) and (d) are correct
(3) (a), (c) and (d) are correct
(4) (a), (b) and (d) are correct
Answer: (2)
27. Vital events include:
(a) Marriage
(b) Adoption
(c) Divorce
(d) Major Surgical Operation
Code:
(1) (a), (b) and (c) are correct
(2) (a) and (c) are correct
(3) (b) and (d) are correct
(4) (a) and (b) are correct
Answer: (1)
28. Measures of dispersion include:
(a) Mean deviation
(b) Standard deviation
(c) Range
(d) Sampling error
Code:
(1) (a) and (b) are correct
(2) (b) and (d) are correct
(3) (a) and (c) are correct
(4) (a), (b) and (c) are correct
Answer: (4)
29. In public health practice the variables in which the data is displayed are:
(a) Discrete variable
(b) Absolute variable
(c) Continuous variable
(d) Positive variable
Code:
(1) (a), (b) and (c) correct
(2) (a) and (c) correct
(3) (c) and (d) correct
(4) (a) and (b) correct
Answer: (2)
30. Human Development Index (HDI) is a composite index combining the following indicators:
(a) Life expectancy at birth
(b) Infant mortality rate
(c) GNI per capita in Purchasing Power Parity (PPP) in US dollars
(d) Mean years of schooling
Code:
(1) (a), (b) and (c) are correct
(2) (b), (c) and (d) are correct
(3) (a), (b) and (d) are correct
(4) (a), (c) and (d) are correct
Answer: (4)
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31. What is true about SARS?
(a) Incubation period is commonly 3 – 5 days.
(b) Effective vaccine as 82% protective efficacy.
(c) Ribavirin has been shown to have no activity against the virus in vitro.
(d) Case fatality rate is ninety percent.
Code:
(1) (a) and (c) correct
(2) (a), (b) and (c) correct
(3) (b) and (d) correct
(4) (a), (c) and (d) correct
Answer: (1)
32. Sampling errors could be due to:
(a) Inter-observer variations
(b) Subject specific variations (natural variability)
(c) Inadequate sample size
(d) High refusal rate
Code:
(1) (a), (b) and (c) are correct
(2) (b) and (c) are correct
(3) (c) and (d) are correct
(4) (a) and (b) are correct
Answer: (2)
33. Which of the following are true about ‘Janani Suraksha Yojana’?
(a) The objective of the scheme is to reduce maternal and infant mortality through encouraging institutional deliveries.
(b) It is only for women below poverty line.
(c) ASHA would be responsible for making available institutional antenatal as well as post-natal care.
(d) All deliveries in low performing states conducted by the trained birth attendants at home are entitled to cash assistance of ` 1500.
Code:
(1) (a), (b) and (c) correct
(2) (a) and (c) correct
(3) (c) and (d) correct
(4) (a), (b) and (d) correct
Answer: (2)
34. Primordial prevention is/includes:
(a) Primary prevention in purest sense.
(b) Prevention after risk factors have developed in population.
(c) Efforts directed towards encouraging children from adopting harmful lifestyles.
(d) Main intervention through individual and mass education.
Code:
(1) (a), (b) and (c) are correct
(2) (a), (b) and (d) are correct
(3) (a), (c) and (d) are correct
(4) (b), (c) and (d) are correct
Answer: (All)
35. Models of Health Education include:
(a) Regulatory
(b) Primary Health Care
(c) Medical Model
(d) Social Intervention
Code:
(1) (a) and (c) are correct
(2) (b) and (c) are correct
(3) (c) and (d) are correct
(4) (b) and (d) are correct
Answer: (3)
36. Which of the following statements are true about mission Indradhanush?
(a) It was launched by Govt of India on 25th December 2014.
(b) The goal is to vaccinate all under fives by the year 2020.
(c) 201 high focus districts will be covered in the first phase.
(d) No special vaccination campaigns will be conducted under the programme.
Code:
(1) (a), (b) and (c) correct
(2) (a) and (c) correct
(3) (c) and (d) correct
(4) (a) and (b) correct
Answer: (1)
37. The following are the dimensions of health which have been suggested/considered (ICSSR and ICMR 1981):
(a) Education dimension
(b) Creative dimension
(c) Cultural dimension
(d) Anxious dimension
Code:
(1) (a) and (b) are correct
(2) (a) and (c) are correct
(3) (b) and (c) are correct
(4) (c) and (d) are correct
Answer: (2)
38. Table describes screening test results by diagnosis for a disease:
|
|
Screening test Positive |
Screening test negative |
| Diseased |
40 |
10 |
| Not diseased |
60 |
90 |
(a) Sensitivity of test is 40%
(b) Specificity of test is 60%
(c) Positive predictive value is 80%
(d) Negative predictive value is 90%
Code:
(1) (a) and (c) are correct
(2) (b) and (d) are correct
(3) (a) and (b) are correct
(4) (c) and (d) are correct
Answer: (2)
39. Table describes screening test results by diagnosis for a disease:
|
|
Screening test Positive |
Screening test negative |
| Diseased |
40 |
10 |
| Not diseased |
60 |
90 |
(a) Sensitivity of test is 80%
(b) Specificity of test is 90%
(c) Positive predictive value is 40%
(d) Negative predictive value is 60%
Code:
(1) (a) and (b) are correct
(2) (a) and (c) are correct
(3) (b) and (c) are correct
(4) (c) and (d) are correct
Answer: (2)
40. Following statements regarding newborn with an HBV positive mother are correct:
(a) Risk of transmission to newborn is 20% in HBe Ag negative mother.
(b) Risk of transmission to newborn is 20% in HBe Ag positive mother.
(c) Breast feeding is contraindicated.
(d) 50% severe cases of infantile hepatitis are result of untreated Pre-natal transmission.
Code:
(1) (a) and (c) are correct
(2) (b) and (d) are correct
(3) (a) and (d) are correct
(4) (b) and (c) are correct
Answer: (3)
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41. Arrange in increasing order of no. of eggs produced by a female worm in human.
(a) A. Duodenale
(b) Whipworm
(c) Ascaris lumbricoides
(d) N. Americanus
Code:
(1) (a), (b), (c), (d) are correct
(2) (c), (d), (a), (b) are correct
(3) (b), (d), (a), (c) are correct
(4) (d), (a), (b), (c) are correct
Answer: (3)
42. Arrange new infectious diseases recognised in last five decades in chronological order of their recognition:
(a) H1 N1
(b) H5 N1
(c) Hepatitis-C virus
(d) H. Pylori
Code:
(1) (a), (b), (c), (d) are correct
(2) (b), (c), (d), (a) are correct
(3) (c), (d), (b), (a) are correct
(4) (d), (c), (b), (a) are correct
Answer: (4)
43. Pick up the correct chronological order for Health Committees given below:
(a) Mudaliar Committee
(b) Bhore Committee
(c) Mukerji Committee
(d) Kartar Singh Committee
Code:
(1) (a), (b), (c), (d) are correct
(2) (b), (a), (c), (d) are correct
(3) (a), (b), (d), (c) are correct
(4) (a), (c), (b), (d) are correct
Answer: (2)
44. Arrange the diseases according to implementation of national programmes for their control in India in chronological order:
(a) Trachoma
(b) Malaria
(c) Filaria
(d) Guinea Worm
Code:
(1) (a), (b), (c), (d) are correct
(2) (b), (c), (a), (d) are correct
(3) (d), (b), (a), (c) are correct
(4) (b), (d), (a), (c) are correct
Answer: (2)
45. Arrange the following activities according to increasing energy expenditure (kcal/hour):
(a) Cleaning/mopping
(b) Walking
(c) Watching TV
(d) Gardening
Code:
(1) (c), (a), (b), (d) are correct
(2) (c), (d), (a), (b) are correct
(3) (c), (b), (a), (d) are correct
(4) (d), (c), (a), (b) are correct
Answer: (3)
46. Arrange the countries with increasing infant mortality rates:
(a) Sri Lanka
(b) Bangladesh
(c) Afghanistan
(d) Sweden
Code:
(1) (d), (a), (c), (b) are correct
(2) (a), (d), (b), (c) are correct
(3) (a), (d), (c), (b) are correct
(4) (d), (a), (b), (c) are correct
Answer: (4)
47. Arrange the National Policies according to year of announcement:
(a) National Child Policy
(b) National Policy for older persons
(c) National Health Policy
(d) National Population Policy
Code:
(1) (a), (b), (c), (d) are correct
(2) (a), (c), (d), (b) are correct
(3) (a), (b), (d), (c) are correct
(4) (c), (d), (a), (b) are correct
Answer: (All)
48. Arrange the following World Health Day themes in descending order of the year they pertain to:
(a) Antimicrobial resistance: “no action today, no cure tomorrow”
(b) 1000 cities, 1000 lives
(c) Save lives. “Make hospitals safe in emergencies”
(d) Ageing and Health, “Good health adds life to years”
Code:
(1) (a), (c), (d), (b) are correct
(2) (d), (a), (b), (c) are correct
(3) (c), (b), (a), (d) are correct
(4) (a), (d), (b), (c) are correct
Answer: (2)
49. Arrange the following food items in descending order as per their vitamin C content (mg per 100 gm):
(a) Guava
(b) Lime
(c) Amla
(d) Orange
Code:
(1) (b), (d), (c), (a) are correct
(2) (c), (b), (a), (d) are correct
(3) (c), (a), (b), (d) are correct
(4) (a), (c), (d), (b) are correct
Answer: (3)
50. The mortality due to cancers amongst men in India in 2012 in decreasing order was as follows:
(a) Lung
(b) Colo rectum
(c) Prostrate
(d) Liver
Code:
(1) (a), (b), (c), (d) are correct
(2) (a), (b), (d), (c) are correct
(3) (b), (c), (a), (d) are correct
(4) (a), (c), (d), (b) are correct
Answer: (2)
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51. Arrange the following blood groups (phenotypes) in ascending order of approximate frequency in Indian population:
Phenotype (Blood Group)
(a) A
(b) AB
(c) B
(d) O
Code:
(1) (a), (b), (c), (d) are correct
(2) (c), (d), (a), (b) are correct
(3) (c), (a), (b), (d) are correct
(4) (d), (c), (a), (b) are correct
Answer: (3)
52. Arrange in ascending order of average incubation period of respiratory infections:
(a) Measles
(b) Rubella
(c) Influenza
(d) Diptheria
Code:
(1) (c), (d), (a), (b) are correct
(2) (d), (c), (b), (a) are correct
(3) (a), (b), (c), (d) are correct
(4) (b), (c), (a), (d) are correct
Answer: (1)
53. Arrange interventions focussed on newborns under National Health Mission in chronological order:
(a) Facility Based Newborn Care
(b) Navjat Shishu Suraksha Karyakaram
(c) Rashtriya Bal Swasthya Karyakram
(d) Integrated Management of Neonatal and Childhood Illnesses
Code:
(1) (d), (a), (b), (c) are correct
(2) (a), (c), (b), (d) are correct
(3) (d), (b), (a), (c) are correct
(4) (a), (d), (b), (c) are correct
Answer: (3)
54. Arrange in chronological order according to year of implementation:
(a) Prenatal Diagnostic Technique Act.
(b) MTP Act.
(c) Central Maternity Benefit Act
(d) Prohibition of Child Marriage Act
Code:
(1) (a), (b), (c), (d) are correct
(2) (c), (d), (a), (b) are correct
(3) (d), (c), (b), (a) are correct
(4) (c), (b), (a), (d) are correct
Answer: (4)
55. Arrange in chronological order according to year of legislation:
(a) Water (Prevention and control of pollution) Act.
(b) Epidemic Disease Act.
(c) Central Births and Deaths Registration Act.
(d) Environment Protection Act.
Code:
(1) (a), (c), (b), (d) are correct
(2) (c), (a), (d), (b) are correct
(3) (b), (d), (c), (a) are correct
(4) (d), (b), (a), (c) are correct
Answer: (All)
Given below are paired statements, statement A (Assertion) and statement R (Reason). Select appropriate answer using code given below as follows: (Questions 56 to 75)
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true.
56. Assertion (A): Lipid disorder screening is recommended in population at high risk for coronary heart disease
Reason (R): Detecting and properly managing lipid disorders early prevents development of atherosclerotic plaques.
Answer: (1)
57. Assertion (A): The incubation period of staphylococcal food poisoning is short.
Reason (R): Staphylococcal food poisoning results from ingestion of preformed exotoxin.
Answer: (1)
58. Assertion (A): Tracking of blood pressure refers to recording the blood pressure in children, round the clock.
Reason (R): Population strategy included in primary prevention of blood pressure involves, non-pharmaco-therapeutic interventions.
Answer: (4)
59. Assertion (A): It is estimated that in 2010 there were 35.6 million. People living with dementia worldwide.
Reason (R): The main reason for this high prevalence of dementia is better diagnostic facilities.
Answer: (3)
60. Assertion (A): Traditional societies are best adapted to assimilate rapid changes.
Reason (R): Traditional societies have a sense of continuity and immutability in patterns of social life.
Answer: (4)
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61. Assertion (A): Cysts are important in the transmission of E. Histolytica.
Reason (R): Cysts of E. Histolytica remain liable for long and resist chlorination.
Answer: (1)
62. Assertion (A): The prevalence of diabetes is approximately twice in urban areas than in rural population.
Reason (R): Unfavourable modification of lifestyle and dietary habits are associated with urbanization.
Answer: (1)
63. Assertion (A): An excessive intake of vitamin D is harmful.
Reason (R): Hypervitaminosis D causes hypercalcaemia by increased intestinal absorption and mobilization of calcium from bones.
Answer: (1)
64. Assertion (A): Cholera epidemic due to contaminated water does not show immediateend on elimination of contaminated source.
Reason (R): Transmission is stopped on removal of contaminated water source but cases occur amongst those already in incubation period.
Answer: (3)
65. Assertion (A): To interrupt transmission of rubella, priority is given to immunise women of child bearing age than children.
Reason (R): About 80% of women of child bearing age are susceptible to rubella.
Answer: (3)
66. Assertion (A): Evaluation for syphilis is best done by FTA – ABS followed by RPR test.
Reason (R): FTA – ABS is specific but RPR test is highly sensitive.
Answer: (4)
67. Assertion (A): Lead has a high boiling point with emission of fumes and dust.
Reason (R): Most cases of industrial lead poisoning is due to inhalation of fumes and dusts of lead or its compound.
Answer: (4)
68. Assertion (A): Prevention of dengue in susceptible population would be better done if effective vaccine is available.
Reason (R): Due to transovarian transmission of dengue virus, anti adult measures will not stop transmission.
Answer: (1)
69. Assertion (A): All helminths are transmitted by ingestion of vegetables and salads from contaminated soil.
Reason (R): The areas which lack adequate sanitation, faûces of infected people contaminate the soil.
Answer: (4)
70. Assertion (A): Communicable diseases can lead to some of the NCDs.
Reason (R): Control of communicable diseases will result in control of all NCDs.
Answer: (3)
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71. Assertion (A): Young infants have more problems in metabolism of cow’s milk than human milk.
Reason (R): The high caesin content of cow’s whole milk forms a tough curd which is hard to digest.
Answer: (1)
72. Assertion (A): If prevalence of goitre is reduced to below 5% in a population, Iodization of salt is still recommended.
Reason (R): The social impact of Iodine deficiency arises not so much from goitre as from the effect on the central nervous system.
Answer: (1)
73. Assertion (A): In India the proportion of Low Birth Weight (LBW) babies is high.
Reason (R): Prematurity is the man cause of Low Birth Weight babies (LBW) in India.
Answer: (3)
74. Assertion (A): There may be low levels of oxygen in Low Birth Weight (LBW) babies.
Reason (R): High levels of oxygen in the baby leads to retrolental fibroplasia.
Answer: (2)
75. Assertion (A): A live attenuated influenza vaccine should not be used in household members of immunosupressed individuals.
Reason (R): There may be a risk of transmission of live attenuated vaccine virus to immuno compromised individuals.
Answer: (1)
76. Outcome of intervention in NCD Prevention and targets for 2020.
| List-I (Outcome) |
List-II (Target 2020) |
| (a) Reduction in prevalence of raised B.P. (b) Reduction in prevalence of insufficient physical activity (c) Reduction in salt intake to 5 gm/day (d) Reduction in prevalence of tobacco use |
(i) 20% (ii) 15% (iii) 5% (iv) 10% |
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(2) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(3) (iii) (i) (iv) (i)
(4) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
Answer: (All)
77. Match List – I and List – II:
| List-I (Mechanism of action) |
List-II (Use) |
| (a) Aerobic and Anaerobic (b) Anaerobic (c) Bacterial decomposition and manure formation (d) Mechanical rotors |
(i) Septic tank (ii) Oxidation ditches (iii) Oxidation pond (iv) Sulabh Shauchalaya |
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(2) (ii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(3) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(4) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
Answer: (1)
78. Outcome of Hepatitis A virus infection in children:
| List-I |
List-II |
| (a) Subclinical infection (b) Icteric disease (c) Complete recovery (d) Mortality |
(i) 80 - 90% (ii) above 98% (iii) 0.1% (iv) 5 - 10% |
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
(2) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(3) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(4) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
Answer: (1)
79. Match List – I with List – II:
| List-I (Disease) |
List-II (Transmission Chain) |
| (a) Plague (b) Encephalitis (c) Schis to somiasis (d) Chlonorchis sin ensis |
(i) Bird-arthropod-man (ii) Man-snail-man (iii) Mammal-arthropod-man (iv) Man-snail-fish-man |
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(4) (iv) (i) (ii (iii)
Answer: (2)
80. Match List – I with List – II:
| List-I |
List-II |
| (a) Socialism (b) Capitalism (c) Acculturation (d) Socialisation |
(i) All for each and each for each. (ii) Social interaction. (iii) Use country resources for public welfare. (iv) Diffusion of culture. |
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
(2) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(3) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(4) (iv) (iii) (ii (i)
Answer: (3)
List of Language Subjects in UGC NET Exam
81. Match vaccine in List – I with recommended age of starting immunisation in List – II.
| List-I |
List-II |
| (a) Hepatitis A (b) Hepatitis B (c) JE Vaccine (d) Pneumococcal conjugate vaccine |
(i) Birth (ii) 6 weeks (iii) 16 months (iv) 18 months |
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(2) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
(3) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(4) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
Answer: (1)
82. Match List – I with List – II:
| List-I (Description) |
List-II (Quantity measured (name)) |
| (a) Brightness of point source (b) Flow of light (c) Amount of light reemitted by surface (d) Amount of light reaching surface |
(i) Luminous intensity (ii) Brightness Luminance (iii) Luminous flux (iv) Illumination Illuminance |
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (i) (iii) (iv)
(2) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(3) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(4) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
Answer: (4)
83. Match diseases in List – I with recommended period of isolation in List – II:
| List-I |
List-II |
| (a) German measles (b) Herpes zoster (c) Influenza (d) Pertussis |
(i) None (ii) 3 days (iii) 6 days (iv) 4 weeks |
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(3) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(4) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
Answer: (2)
84. Causative factors and diseases:
| List-I |
List-II |
| (a) Treponema pallidum (b) Haemophilus ducreyi (c) Donovania granulomatis (d) Human papilloma virus |
(i) Granuloma in inguinale (ii) Syphilis (iii) Condylomna acumninata (iv) Chancroid |
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(2) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(3) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(4) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
Answer: (1)
85. Match List – I with List – II:
| List - I (Current vaccine against disease) |
List-II (Type of Antigen) |
| (a) Yellow fever (b) Rabies (HDCV) (c) Acellular pertussis (d) HPV |
(i) Killed whole organism (ii) Recombinant (iii) Live attenuated agent (iv) Toxoid/ protein |
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(2) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(3) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(4) (i) (iv) (ii) (ii)
Answer: (3)
86. Match List – I with List – II:
| List-I |
List-II |
| (a) Secondary Attack Rate (b) Serial interval (c) Generation time (d) Latent period |
(i) Time between onset of primary and secondary case. (ii) Time between disease initiation and detection. (iii) Persons developing disease within one incubation Period. (iv) Time between receipt of infection and maximum infectivity |
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(3) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(4) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
Answer: (3)
87. Match List – I with List – II:
| List-I (Types of RCT) |
List-II (Factors for study of association) |
| (a) Clinical trial (b) Preventive trial (c) Risk factor trial (d) Cessation experiment |
(i) Cigarette smoking and lung cancer (ii) Physical activity and coronary heart disease (iii) lodised salt and cretinism (iv) Aspirin and cardio vascular mortality |
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
Answer: (4)
88. Suggested norms for health personnel is:
| List-I |
List-II |
| (a) Nurses (b) Health Assistant (c) Lab technician (d) ASHA |
(i) 1 per 10,000 population (ii) 1 per 5,000 population (iii) 1 per 30,000 population (iv) 1 Per 1000 Population |
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(3) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(4) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
Answer: (All)
89. Match List – I and List – II:
| List-I (Occupational Exposure) |
List-II (Site of cancer) |
| (a) Coal tar (b) Asbestos (c) Analine dye (d) Benzol |
(i) Bladder cancer (ii) Leukaemia (iii) Lung cancer (iv) Skin cancer |
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(2) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(3) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
(4) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
Answer: (2)
90. Match List – I and List – II:
| List-I (Disease) |
List-II (Vector) |
| (a) Filariasis (b) Kala Azar (c) Epidemic typhus (d) Scabies |
(i) Sand fly (ii) Head louse (iii) Itch mite (iv) Culex mosquito |
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(2) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(3) (iv) (i) (ill) (ii)
(4) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
Answer: (1)
Check UGC NET DEC 2019 Result Analysis and Cutoff
91. Match List – I and List – II:
| List-I (Condition) |
List-II (Manifestation) |
| (a) Fluorosis (b) Hyper vitaminosis A (c) Hyper vitaminosis D (d) Iron overload |
(i) Hemosiderosis (ii) Over calcification (iii) Genu valgum (iv) Skin desquamation |
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(2) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
Answer: (2)
92. Match List – I and List – II:
| List-I |
List-II |
| (a) Oxides of nitrogen (b) Hydrocarbons (c) Sulphur dioxide (d) Lead |
(i) Respiratory tract infection, bronchial hyperactivity, impaired lung defences (ii) Exacerbation of asthma and COPD (iii) Impaired neuropsychological development in children (iv) Lung cancer |
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(2) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
(3) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(4) (iv) (i (ii) (ii)
Answer: (2)
93. Match List – I and List – II:
| List-I (Deficiency) |
List-II (Disease) |
| (a) Thiamine (b) Niacin (c) Ascorbic Acid (d) Iron |
(i) Pellagra (ii) Anaemia (iii) Beri beri (iv) Scurvy |
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
(2) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(3) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(4) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
Answer: (3)
94. Match List – I and List – II:
| List-I (Food item) |
List-II (Good source of nutrient) |
| (a) Papaya (b) Ragi (c) Jaggery (d) Tea |
(i) Calcium (ii) Fluorine (iii) Beta carotene (iv) Iron |
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (i) (i) (iv)
(2) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(3) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
(4) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
Answer: (4)
95. Match List – I and List – II:
| List-I (Food Item) |
List-II (Good source of nutrient) |
| (a) Whole grain cereal (b) E8g (c) Groundnut (d) Fresh fruits |
(i) Riboflavin (ii) Niacin (iii) Ascorbic Acid (iv) Thiamine |
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(2) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(3) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
(4) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
Answer: (4)
Question numbers 96 to 100 are based on this paragraph.
An increase in occurrence of brain cancer cases is reported in your area. Twenty five cases have been identified. You want to find if it is related to exposure to mobile phone radiation. For the purpose, a study has to be designed to find the strength of association using limited resources. There is a panic in public and a quick answer is solicited to allay fear and take appropriate public health measures.
96. Most cost effective method to identify cancer cases is:
(1) Population based screening
(2) Voluntary reporting of cases
(3) Screening of family members of known cases
(4) Cancer Registry
Answer: (4)
97. The most ‘appropriate initial study design’ for finding strength of association in above mentioned scenario is:
(1) Cross sectional study
(2) Case control study
(3) Cohort study
(4) Interventional study
Answer: (2)
98. The first step out of those mentioned below should be selected for ‘appropriate study design.
(1) Allocation to two arms
(2) Operational definition of case
(3) Defining the universe
(4) Sample size determination
Answer: (2)
99. What will be calculated to measure strength of association in above mentioned scenario in selected ‘appropriate study design’?
(1) Relative risk
(2) Attributable risk
(3) Population attributable risk
(4) Odds Ratio
Answer: (4)
100. What could be major limitation of ‘appropriate study design’ selected for the purpose?
(1) Attrition
(2) Resource intensive
(3) Accurate exposure measurement
(4) Inability to study multiple aetiological factors
Answer: (3)
Practice makes the man perfect! The more you will practice, the more accuracy you will gain which will eventually lead you to a high score in the exam. Practice will help you in avoiding silly mistakes and making unnecessary guess works while attempting NTA UGC NET 2020 Exam. Therefore, practicing previous year papers will help you in achieving accuracy and high score in NTA UGC NET 2020 Exam.