UGC NET Tourism Administration & Management Previous Year Paper: Practice UGC NET July 2018 Paper-2 with Answer Keys

UGC NET Tourism Administration & Management Previous Year Paper: Candidates can score high marks in UGC NET Tourism Administration & Management Paper-2 by practicing previous year papers in online mode. This will help the candidates to improve their speed of attempting questions with accuracy in UGC NET Exam. In this article, we have shared the UGC NET Paper-2 Tourism Administration & Management Previous Year Paper held in July 2018 alongwith their answers.

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UGC NET July 2018 Paper-2 Tourism Administration & Management Previous Year Paper with Answers

1. From the following, match the correct pair of the editor/editors and title of the book:

Editor/Editors

Title of the Book

(1) Fabio Cerina, Anil Markamdya and Michael Mcaller

(2) Aparna Raj

(3) Derek Hall and Greg Richards

(4) C. Michael Hall, Stefan Gosshing and Daniel Scott

(i) Sustainability, Profitability and Successful Tourism

(ii) Tourism and Sustainable Community Development

(iii) Economics of Sustainable Tourism

(iv) The Routledge Handbook of Tourism and Sustainability

Answer: (4)

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2. As per the farman (King’s order) preserved in the Rajasthan State Archives, Bikaner the haveli or havelis on which TajMahal was constructed belonged to a Rajput noble. It was purchased from a descendent of the noble. From the following identify the noble who owned the haveli:

(1) Mirza Raja Jai Singh

(2) Mota Raja Udai Singh

(3) Raja Rai Singh

(4) Raja Bir Singh Deo Bundila

Answer: (1)

3. As per India Tourism Statistics 2017 which one was not the international checkpost for foreign tourist arrivals in India in 2016?

(1) Delhi

(2) Jaipur

(3) Goa

(4) Haridaspur

Answer: (2)

4. The surrogacy (Regulation) Bill, 2016, contain certain salient features. Point out from the below which one is not the salient feature of the bill?

(1) The altruistic ethical surrogacy is for intending infertile couple between the age of 23 – 50 years and 26 – 55 years for female and male respectively.

(2) The intending couple should not necessarily be legally married and should not necessarily be Indian citizens.

(3) The intending couple shall not abandon the child born out of a surrogacy procedure under any condition.

(4) The child born through surrogacy will have the same rights as are available for the biological child.

Answer: (2)

5. Pakistan’s Chief Justice Saqib Nisar flayed the government for its inability to safeguard one of the Hindu minority’s most revered places of worship. Nisar described that it, being a national heritage site, must be protected and directed authority in Punjab province to form a committee to probe the issue. Select the correct name of the sacred place:

(1) Katas Raj temple

(2) Bhera temple

(3) Hinglaj Mata temple

(4) Gorakhnath temple

Answer: (1)

6. Panna Tiger Reserve is spread over the Panna and Chhatarpur districts. The terrain consists of extensive plateaus and gorges. The plateaus are the part of:

(1) Aravelli range

(2) Vindhyachal range

(3) Himalayan range

(4) Karakoram mountain range

Answer: (2)

7. The World Heritage Programme that catalogues and conserves sites of outstanding cultural and natural importance is run by:

(1) UNICEF

(2) UNESCO

(3) WHO

(4) INTACH

Answer: (2)

8. I’timad al-Daula, who was the father of empress Nur Jahan and father-in-law of emperor Jahangir was an Irani noble. His tomb is one of the beautiful monuments. The white marble tomb, about seven meters per side, is magnificently crafted and profused by in laid with semi precious stones. It is situated in the city of:

(1) Lahore

(2) Kabul

(3) Lucknow

(4) Agra

Answer: (4)

9. The concept of Charbagh is an Islamic mythological concept and many famous monuments are adorned with Charbagh . The baghs enhance the beauty of tombs and this attracts the tourists in large number. Who is known to have introduced the monuments surrounded by Charbagh?

Identify the king from the following:

(1) Timurlung

(2) Babur

(3) Humayun

(4) Akbar

Answer: (2)

10. The term ‘Social tourism’ describes:

(1) assisted holidays or vacations for disadvantaged groups in society

(2) tourism for proletariats

(3) tourism which fosters group activities

(4) tourism for bourgeois class

Answer: (1)

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11. Match the items in List – I with those in List – II and select the correct answer using the code given below:

List-I

(Folk Dance)

List-II

(State)

(a) Bhagavatam Hikat

(b) Yakshagana

(c) Maha Rasa

(d) Kayanga Bajayanga

(i) Manipur

(ii) Karnatak

(iii) Rajasthan

(iv) J and K

Code:

      (a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)

(2) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

(3) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

(4) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)

Answer: (1)

12. Arrange the following in order of their recognition as world heritage sites:

(a) Sun Temple, Konark

(b) Great Living Chola Temples

(c) Rock Shelters of Bhimbetka

(d) Mountain Railways of India

Code:

(1) (d), (b), (c), (a)

(2) (a), (b), (d), (c)

(3) (d), (c), (b), (a)

(4) (a), (b), (c), (d)

Answer: (2)

13. Match the items of List – I with items of List – II, use the code given below:

List-I

(Destination)

List-II

(Tourism Slogan)

(a) Japan

(b) Vietnam

(c) Fiji

(d) Israel

(i) Land of creation

(ii) Where happiness finds you

(iii) Endless discovery

(iv) Timeless charm

Code:

      (a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)

(2) (i) (ii) (iv) (ii)

(3) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

(4) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

Answer: (3)

14. Assertion (A): Since the beginning of human history, people have journeyed away from home for a multitude of reasons. The world has undergone many phases of human development including long distance travel.

Reason (R): Transhumance or the seasonal migration of pastoral peoples with their herds, was an early demonstration of longer distance travel away from the village or family.

In the context of the above two statements, which of the following is correct?

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (1)

15. Thank you for being ‘AWESOMELY UNORDINARY’ has been the tag line of which Indian Origin hotel chain, celebrating its 50 years, for guests, associates and partners in 2017 – 18? 

(1) The Park Group of Hotels

(2) The Oberoi Group of Hotels

(3) The Taj Group of Hotels

(4) The ITC Welcomegroup of Hotels

Answer: (1)

16. Ministry of Tourism, Government of India has launched a web application to facilitate hoteliers for classification and approval of their hotel. The official online portal for the same is:

(1) https://www.hotelcloud.nic.in

(2) https://www.nchm.nic.in

(3) https://www.thims.gov.in

(4) https://www.hracc.gov.in

Answer: (1)

17. The minimum number of lettable rooms, with all rooms having provision of outside windows and/or ventilation for any star rating category, as per latest guidelines issued by Ministry of Tourism, Govt. of India (2018) is:

(1) 25

(2) 15

(3) 100

(4) 10

Answer: (4)

18. Match the items in List – I with those in List – II and choose the correct answer using the code given below:

List-I

(Dish)

List-II

(Region)

(a) Rabadi

(b) Kanhi

(c) Shondesh

(d) Chicken Chettinad

(i) Kerala

(ii) West Bengal

(iii) Haryana

(iv) Tamil Nadu

Code:

      (a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)

(2) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)

(3) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)

(4) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)

Answer: (3)

19. Which amongst the following is a heritage hotel?

(1) Taj Lake Palace Udaipur

(2) Oberoi Udaivilas Udaipur

(3) The Leela Palace Udaipur

(4) Radisson Blu Udaipur

Answer: (1)

20. Established by Ms. Travis Kalanick and Mr. Garrett Camp in 2009, Uber Cabs has its head office is:

(1) London

(2) San Francisco – California

(3) New Delhi

(4) Tokyo

Answer: (2)

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21. Which of the following statements are correct?

(a) Mr. Rakesh Gangwal is one of the founders of Spice Jet Airlines

(b) Mr. Naresh Goyal is one of the founders of Jet Airways

(c) Mr. Rahul Bhati is one of the founders of Indigo Airlines

(d) Mr. Bhavish Aggarwal is one of the founders of GoAir

Code:

(1) Both (a) and (b) are correct.

(2) Both (b) and (c) are correct.

(3) Both (c) and (d) are correct.

(4) Both (a) and (d) are correct.

Answer: (2)

22. Mascot of Indian Railways is:

(1) Maharaja (Emperor)

(2) Bholu – An Elephant

(3) Panda

(4) Tiger

Answer: (2)

23. Match the items in List – I with those in List – II and choose the correct answer using the code given below:

List-I

(Railway Zone)

List-II

(Head Qtr)

(a) North Western Railway

(b) South Western Railway

(c) East Central Railway

(d) South Central Railway

(i) Jaipur

(ii) Hajipur

(iii) Hubli

(iv) Secunderabad

Code:

      (a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)

(2) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)

(3) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)

(4) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)

Answer: (2)

24. Golden Quadrilateral is highway network connecting many of the major industrial, agricultural and cultural centres of India comprises:

(1) Chennai, Kolkata, Delhi, Mumbai

(2) Srinagar, Kanyakumari, Gandhinagar, Kolkata

(3) Dehradun, Rajkot, Bengaluru, Patna

(4) Delhi, Gandhinagar, Puducherry, Shillong

Answer: (1)

25. Match the items in List – I with those in List – II and choose the correct answer using the code given below:

List-I

(Airport)

List-II

(IATA - code)

(a) Bakula Rimpoche Airport

(b) Biju Patnayak International Bhubaneshwar Airport

(c) Borjhar Airport

(d) Chennai Airport

(i) GAV

(ii) BBI

(iii) IXL

(iv) MAA

Code:

      (a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (ii) (i) (ii) (iv)

(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

(3) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)

(4) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)

Answer: (3)

26. Kazi Nazrul Islam Airport is located at:

(1) Raipur

(2) Durgapur

(3) Ranchi

(4) Srinagar

Answer: (2)

27. First Shatabdi Express (1988) operated between:

(1) New Delhi – Jhansi

(2) New Delhi – Chandigarh

(3) New Delhi – Amritsar

(4) New Delhi – Dehradun

Answer: (1)

28. Arrange the following airlines in the order of their scheduled commercial operationalisation:

(a) Air India

(b) Spice Jet

(c) Jet Airways

(d) Indigo

Code:

(1) (c), (a), (b), (d)

(2) (a), (d), (c), (b)

(3) (a), (c), (d), (b)

(4) (a), (c), (b), (d)

Answer: (4)

29. Match the items in List – I with those in List – II and choose the correct answer using the code given below:

List-I

(Bus Station/terminus)

List-II

(City)

(a) Mahatma Gandhi Bus Station

(b) Pandit Nehru Bus Station

(c) Arappalayam Bus Terminus

(d) Maharana Pratap Inter-state Bus Terminus

(i) Hyderabad

(i) Vijayawada

(iii) Madurai

(iv) Delhi

Code:

      (a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(2) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)

(3) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)

(4) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

Answer: (1)

30. Identify the correct sequence of the following IATO convention in the order of the year of the event held.

(a) IATO convention in Lahore, 3 – 5th June

(b) IATO convention in Khajuraho, 17 – 19th Dec

(c) IATO convention in Bhubaneswar, 7 – 10th Aug

(d) IATO convention in Indore, 20 – 23rd Aug

Code:

(1) (b), (c), (d), (a)

(2) (a), (b), (c), (d)

(3) (d), (c), (b), (a)

(4) (c), (d), (a), (b)

Answer: (2)

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31. Eravikulam National Park is located in the state of:

(1) Karnataka

(2) Andhra Pradesh

(3) Kerala

(4) Tamil Nadu

Answer: (3)

32. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?

(1) F.J. Kennedy TAAI President – 1956 – 57

(2) Inder Sharma PATA President – 1988 – 1991

(3) G.K. Khanna ATOI President – 1966 – 1969

(4) Jehangir Katgara ASTA President – 2001 – 2003

Answer: (1)

33. Who amongst the following is the founder of RedBus.in?

(1) Ritesh Agarwal

(2) Phanindra Sama

(3) Ashish Kashyap

(4) Subhash Goyal

Answer: (2)

34. Who is the founder of cleartrip?

(1) Vinay Gupta

(2) Krishna Mohan Alapati

(3) Stuart Crighton and Hrush Bhatt

(4) Dhruv Shringi, Manish Amin and Sabina Chopra

Answer: (3)

35. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

(1) Fortaleza        Brazil
(2) Bariloche      Argentina
(3) Taxco             Mexico
(4) Valparaiso    Peru

Answer: (4)

36. ‘One Currency Card’ and ‘Borderless Prepaid Card’ are the foreign exchange services offered by:

(1) Thomas Cook

(2) Cox and Kings

(3) Akbar Travels

(4) American Express

Answer: (1)

37. Flag Air carrier of UAE is:

(1) Emirates

(2) Etihad

(3) Asiana

(4) Aer Lingus

Answer: (2)

38. Match the items in List – I with those in List – II. Use code given below:

List-I

(Past President of IATO and Founder of Travel company)

List-II

(Name of Travel company)

(a) Mr. Ram Kohil

(b) Mr. Pawan Khanna

(c) Mr. O.P. Ahuja

(d) Mr. Badri Bajaj

(i) Rainbow Travels (India) Pvt. Ltd.

(ii) Adventure World India Pvt. Ltd.

(iii) Creative Travel Pvt. Ltd.

(iv) Holiday maker Tours and Travel

Code:

      (a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)

(2) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)

(3) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)

(4) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)

Answer: (2)

39. Match the items in List – I with those of List – II. Use code given below:

List-I

(Name of Travel company)

List-II

(Country in which headquarters located)

(a) Carlson wagonlit Travel

(b) TUI

(c) Grab Taxi

(d) Didi Dache

(i) England

(ii) Singapore

(iii) China

(iv) France

Code:

      (a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)

(2) (i) (ii) (ii) (iv)

(3) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

(4) (iv) (i (ii) (iii)

Answer: (4)

40. Match the items of List – I with items of List – II and select the correct answer using the code given below:

List-I

(Type of Analysis)

List-II

(Description)

(a) Situation analysis

(b) Market analysis

(c) Feasibility analysis

(d) Marketing Environment

(i) It is study of the potential demand for an existing business

(ii) It is study of the potential demand for a new hospitality and travel business

(iii) It is a study of the potential demand for and economic viability of a business

(iv) It looks at factors such as competition, economics, politics and legislation, society and culture, technology and organizational objectives and resources and their impacts

Code:

      (a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (ii) (iv) (i) (ii)

(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(3) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

(4) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)

Answer: (1)

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41. Which of the following is not essential for effective positioning a hopsitality and travel service?

(1) Information on the needs of customers in target markets and the benefits they look for

(2) A knowledge of the organisation’s competitive strengths and weaknesses

(3) A familiarity with competitors’ strengths and weaknesses

(4) Information on how competitors perceive the organization

Answer: (4)

42. Assertion (A): Ethics and morality have become an integral part of hospitality decisions, from employment to truth in menus.

Reason (R): Many corporations and businesses have developed a code of ethics.

In the context of above statements, which one of the following is correct?

(1) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.

(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct.

(3) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.

(4) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.

Answer: (2)

43. Which of the following set of elements characterise ‘Destination Mix’ in hospitality and travel services?

(1) People, physical evidence, infrastructure, events and transportation

(2) Infrastructure, hospitality resources, events, transportation and people

(3) Attractions and events, facilities, infrastructure, transportation and hospitality resources

(4) Facilities, people, physical evidence, infrastructure and people

Answer: (3)

44. During the ‘Evaluation of alternatives’ stage of consumer buying behavior, individual consumers use their own criteria. These can be ‘objective’ or ‘subjective criteria’. Which one of the following is NOT an ‘objective’ criterion:

(1) Image of the service organization

(2) Physical characteristics of facilities

(3) Prices

(4) Locations

Answer: (1)

45. Assertion (A): The hospitality and travel industry has not followed the same historical evolution in markets as others.

Reason (R): Major technological break through came later in hospitality and travel industry than they did in other industries.

In the context of the above statements, which one of the following is correct?

(1) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.

(2) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.

(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Answer: (3)

Read the passage below and answer the questions from 46 to 50 that follow based on your understanding of the passage:

In the Thar Desert when ‘Ker’ (Capparis Decidua) flowers profusely, people of Bhil and Garasia tribes take drought to be imminent. But the harbinger of drought is also a saviour of sorts. Homemakers of Rajasthan and leading companies pick its flower, buds and unripe fruits to make aachar. People generally prefer a combination of Mango, Ker and Goonda(Cordia Mixa) fruits made in sesame or mustard oil. Common spices and fenugreek are added to make aachar more appetising ; some marwaris even put fennel, ginger and split chickpea. 

The Ker is also a favourite vegetable of many Rajasthanis and can be cooked in 10 minutes. The ripe Ker fruit is also called as dhalu ; its sap has a distinct sweet taste. The plant also grows in Egypt, Namibia, Ethopia, Somalia, Iraq and Pakistan. The Ker flower contains fairly good quantities of Vitamin C, protein and minerals. Many traditional healers prescribe Ker fruits for cardiac diseases. The extract of immature fruits can be used to cure trachoma. The plant is an ingredient to popular tonic Liv – 52.

White ants donot attack Ker wood and can be used to make agricultural implements like the plough. To take advantage of these benefits we need to conserve the plant, fast disappearing today from many parts of the Thar desert

46. The Ker plant also grows in __________ continent of the world.

(1) Europe

(2) America

(3) Africa

(4) Australia

Answer: (3)

47. Which amongst the following statements are correct?

(a) Ker is popularly used to make pickle.

(b) The pods called Sangri from Khejri tree are used to make vegetable ‘Ker Sangri’ which

is a famous dish of Rajasthan.

(c) Ker oil is very good for health and prevents hairfall.

(d) Ker grows well in high altitude areas.

Code:

(1) (a) and (b)

(2) (a), (b) and (c)

(3) (b) and (c)

(4) (a) and (d)

Answer: (1)

48. Assertion (A): The Ker flower contains fairly good quantities of Vitamin C, protein and minerals.

Reason (R): The Ker is a favourite vegetable of many Rajasthanis and can be cooked in 10 minutes.

In the context of two statements, which one of the following is correct?

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation.

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation.

(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false but (R) is true.

Answer: (2)

49. Which amongst the following statements are not correct?

(a) Flowers, buds and fruit (both unripe and ripe) of Ker are edible in some or other form.

(b) Ker is also used to extract oil.

(c) Ker is also known for its medicinal values.

(d) Ker is also used as a spice.

Code:

(1) (a) and (b)

(2) (b) and (c)

(3) (a) and (c)

(4) (b) and (d)

Answer: (4)

50. Assertion (A): White ants do not attack Ker wood and can be used to make agricultural implements like the plough.

Reason (R): To take advantage of the benefits we need to conserve the plant, fast disappearing today from many parts of the Thar.

In the context of the two statements, which one of the following is correct?

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation.

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation.

(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false but (R) is true.

Answer: (2)

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51. Following conditions contribute to the branding decisions:

(a) The product is easy to identify by brand or trademark.

(b) Quality and standards are difficult to maintain.

(c) The product is perceived as the best value for price.

(d) The demand for the general product class is large enough to support a regional, national or international chain.

Select the correct combination using the code given below:

(1) (a), (b) and (c) are correct.

(2) (a), (b) and (d) are correct.

(3) (a), (c) and (d) are correct.

(4) (b), (c) and (d) are correct.

Answer: (3)

52. Which of the following statements are correct?

(a) Typologies of tourists are not similar to the concept of market segmentation.

(b) Quality in tourism is a Jigsaw, if any piece is missing the tourist will be dissatisfied.

(c) There are no such things as a “green tourists”, indeed there are some tourists who are not at all green.

(d) There are similarities between nationalities in terms of tourists’ attitudes towards environment.

Code:

(1) Both (a) and (b) are correct.

(2) Both (b) and (c) are correct.

(3) Both (c) and (d) are correct.

(4) Both (d) and (a) are correct.

Answer: (2)

53. Match items of List – I with items of List – II. Use code given below:

List-I

(international Hotels)

List-II

(Advertising slogans)

(a) La quinta Inns and Suites

(b) Windsor suits Hotel

(c) Hotel Euler

(d) Le Meriden

(i) Twice the comfort, twice the value, twice the hotel

(ii) Find something you were not looking for

(iii) It's not a hotel, it’s way of life

(iv) Wake up on the bright side

Code:

      (a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)

(2) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)

(3) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)

(4) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)

Answer: (2)

54. Sales oriented pricing emphasizes __________ rather than __________.

(1) Branding, profit potential

(2) Sales volumes, profits

(3) Customer need, customer satisfaction

(4) Long term, short term

Answer: (2)

55. This consists of two lists of items and the candidate has to match an item in one list with an item in the other. Use code:

List-I

(Name of study conducted by professional institutes related to tourism in India)

List-II

(Nature of study)

(a) Indian institute of Public Administration study on models of Tourism (1970)

(b) UNDP study (2003)

(c) UNESCO study (1993)

(d) INTACH (2003)

(i) The Effects of Tourism on culture and the environment.

(ii) Type of organization and staffing pattern for DOT, Govt. of India.

(iii) Endogenous Tourism for Sustainable Rural Livelihoods.

(iv) Development of Rural Tourism through conservation of Art and Artefacts.

Code:

      (a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)

(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(3) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

(4) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)

Answer: (1)

56. Read the following statements and choose correct answer from the code given below:

Assertion (A): Anthropologists tend to study the process of acculturation in indigenous societies, although it has proved almost impossible to isolate the impacts of tourism from the influence of wider social, environmental, technological and other changes.

Reason (R): International tourism is implicated in the globalization as a part of a much wider process of global cultural change and interchange. This makes measuring sustainable tourism extremely feasible and easy.

Code:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true.

(2) (A) is true but (R) is false.

(3) (A) is false but (R) is true.

(4) Both (A) and (R) are false.

Answer: (2)

57. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?

(1) Association for Social and Health Advancement (ASHA) in collaboration with Coady International Institute, Canada

(2) DHAN foundation

(3) Equations

(4) ISHA Foundation

(i) Endogenous Tourism in Mukutmatripur in West Bengal

(ii) Community-Based Tourism in Choti Haldwani, Uttarakhand

(iii) Rural Tourism Raghurajpur, Odisha

(iv) Heritage conservation Tourism development in Karikudi

Answer: (1)

58. Travel – buying behaviour adapted from Mathieson and Wall in 1982 explains about five stages of taking travel decisions. Identify the correct order in which they are placed in the model. Use the code given below:

(a) Felt need/Travel desire

(b) Information collection and evaluation stage

(c) Travel decision (Choice between alternatives)

(d) Travel preparation and Travel experiences

(e) Travel satisfaction outcome and evaluation

Code:

(1) (c), (d), (e), (b), (a)

(2) (e), (a), (c), (b), (d)

(3) (b), (a), (d), (c), (e)

(4) (a), (b), (c), (d), (e)

Answer: (4)

59. The Ministry of Tourism, Govt. of India initiated several measures to promote tourism as a key driver of socio-economic development and preservation of the rich cultural heritage of India.

Arrange the following measure initiatives as per the correct order of year of establishment. Use the given below code:

(a) National Strategy for Promotion of Tourism

(b) National Action Plan

(c) Tourism Finance Corporation

(d) National Committee on Tourism

Code:

(1) (a), (b), (c), (d)

(2) (d), (c), (b), (a)

(3) (b), (c), (d), (a)

(4) (c), (b), (a), (d)

Answer: (2)

60. Assertion (A): The realization that extraction of most renewable resources cannot be maintained over the long term if limits are not placed on their utilization has led to an interest in sustained yields.

Reason (R): Deforestation, fertilization and irrigation to increase crop yields can lead to soil erosion, salinization and water scarcity and other forms of environmental degradation that can ultimately reduce the yield.

In the context of the two statements, choose the correct answer using the code given below. 

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true.

(2) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(3) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

(4) Both (A) and (R) are false.

Answer: (1)

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61. The Department of Tourism, Govt. of India obtained the services of a tourism expert to investigate the potentialities of cultural and monumental heritage of India for tourism development through the UNESCO in 1968. Identify the name of expert from the following given below.

(1) Dr. Karan Singh

(2) Dr. F.R. Allchin

(3) Mr. L.K. Jha

(4) Dr. Romila Thaper

Answer: (2)

62. This consists of two lists of items. Match items in one list with items in the other.

List-I

(Declarations of Tourism)

List-II

(Year of Declarations)

(a) The Hague Declaration on Tourism

(b) Agenda 21 for the Travel and Tourism industry

(c) Male Declaration on Sustainable Tourism Development

(d) CSD 7 - Tourism and Sustainable Development

(i) 1999

(ii) 1997

(ii) 1996

(iv) 1989

Code:

      (a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (i) (ii) (ii) (iv)

(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

(3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

(4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

Answer: (3)

63. The formation of ITDC came into existence in 1966 with the merger of three organisations. 

Find the correct organisations from the following:

(1) Hotel corporation of India, India Tourism Transport undertaking, India Tourism Promotion Bureau

(2) India Tourism Traffic Bureau, India Trasport Corporation, Hotel Corporation of India

(3) India Tourist Corporation, India Tourism Transport undertaking, Hotel Corporation of India

(4) India Tourist Traffic Promotion Bureau, Hotel Development Corpotion, Transport Undertaking of India

Answer: (3)

64. A linear model of the tourism decision-making process, adapted from Wahab, Crampton and Rothfield in 1976 highlights on nine stages of taking travel decision. Identify the correct order in which these are placed in the model.

(1) Initial framework → Conceptual alternatives → Fact gathering → Definition of Assumption → Design of stimulus → Cost benefits of alternatives → Forecast of consequences – Decision – Outcome

(2) Conceptual alternatives → Fact gathering → Initial framework → Design of stimulus → Definition of assumption → Forecast of consequences → Cost benefits of alternatives – outcome – Decision

(3) Initial framework → Conceptual alternatives → Fact gathering → Definition of assumption → Design of stimulus → Forecast of consequences → Cost benefits of alternatives – Decision – outcome

(4) Conceptual alternatives → Design of stimulus → Definition of assumption → Initial Framework → Fact gathering → Cost benefits of alternatives → Forecast of consequences – outcome – Decision

Answer: (3)

65. If P(A)=0.5, P(B) =0.6 and P(A∩B)= 0.3, then P(A∪B) is:

(1) 0.8000

(2) 0.5000

(3) 0.6000

(4) 0.000

Answer: (1)

66. As the sample size increases:

(1) the population mean decreases

(2) the population standard deviation decreases

(3) the standard deviation for the distribution of the sample means increases

(4) the standard deviation for the distribution of the sample means decreases

Answer: (4)

67. Which of the following are not the assumptions of non-parametric test?

(a) The nature of population is known to be normal

(b) The variables are expressed in nominal form

(c) The variables are represented by frequent counts

(d) The variables are expressed in Interval forms

Code:

(1) Both (a) and (d)

(2) Both (a) and (b)

(3) Both (b) and (c)

(4) Both (c) and (d)

Answer: (1)

68. The area under any normal curve that is within two standard deviations of the mean is approximately:

(1) 0.950

(2) 0.680

(3) 0.997

(4) 0.500

Answer: (1)

69. Read the following statements and choose the correct answer from the code given below: 

Assertion (A): An orthogonal rotation strategy in principal component analysis keeps the factors independent of each other during the rotation process.

Reason (R): Two or more entities are independent of (not correlated with) one another and geometrically the factors are orthogonal if they cross each other at 1208.

Code:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true.

(2) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(3) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

(4) Both (A) and (R) are false.

Answer: (2)

70. Deductive procedure for research involves the following stages. Arrange the stages in their logical sequence. Use code given below:

(a) The researcher tests a theory.

(b) Concepts and variables are operationalized.

(c) An instrument is used to measure the variation in the theory.

(d) Hypothesis or research questions are derived from the theory.

(e) Verification of the Hypothesis.

Code:

(1) (a), (b), (c), (d), (e)

(2) (a), (d), (b), (c), (e)

(3) (a), (c), (b), (d), (e)

(4) (a), (d), (c), (b), (e)

Answer: (2)

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71. Match the items of List – I with those in List – II. Choose the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

List-I

(Scales)

List-II

(Description)

(a) Nominal Scale

(b) Ordinal Scale

(c) Interval Scale

(d) Ratio Scale

(i) Used when a set of objects is to be differentiated on known variables

(ii) Quantitative classification of a set of objects with the help of ranking

(iii) Assumes existence of absolute zero

(iv) Based on equal units of measurement

Code:

      (a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(2) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)

(3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

(4) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)

Answer: (2)

72. Which of the following statements are correct?

(a) ‘Central Limits Theorem’ describes the characteristics of sample means.

(b) In case of large randomly selected samples, the sampling distribution of sample means is assumed to be normal.

(c) Parametric tests are based on the assumption that the variables described are expressed in nominal or ordinal scales of measurement.

(d) When the size of the sample is small, the t-distribution lies under the normal curve but the tails of the curve are lower than the corresponding parts of the normal curve.

Code:

(1) Both (a) and (b) are correct.

(2) Both (b) and (c) are correct.

(3) Both (a) and (c) are correct.

(4) Both (a) and (d) are correct.

Answer: (1)

73. Match the items of List – I with those in List – II and choose the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

List-I

(Words)

List-II

(Abbreviation)

(a) Place cited

(b) Previously cited

(c) Same reference

(d) Same person

(i) Op.cit.

(ii) ibid

(iii) idem

(iv) loc.cit

Code:

      (a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

(3) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

(4) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

Answer: (4)

74. The steps involved in the process of content analysis include:

(a) Contingency Analysis

(b) Constructing content analysis outline

(c) Specifying variables and categories

(d) Frequency, direction and intensity of units

(e) Sampling of units

Arrange the above steps in a correct order using the code given below:

(1) (a), (b), (c), (d), (e)

(2) (b), (c), (d), (a), (e)

(3) (c), (d), (e), (b), (a)

(4) (c), (d), (a), (e), (b)

Answer: (4)

75. Match the items of List – I with items of List – II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

List-I

(Elements of organisation structure)

List-II

(Description)

(a) Work specialization

(b) Centralization

(c) Formalization

(d) Span of control

(i) It refers to degree to which jobs within the organization are standardized

(ii) It refers to degree to which activities in organization are divided into separate jobs

(iii) 1t refers to the number of levels and managers an organization has

(iv) It refers to the degree to which decision making is concentrated at a single point in the organization

Code:

      (a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)

(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(3) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

(4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

Answer: (1)

76. Following are various stages of conflict process. Arrange the stages in a logical sequence using the code that follows the stages:

(a) Potential opposition or incompatibility

(b) Intentions

(c) Cognition and personalization

(d) Outcomes

(e) Behavior

Code:

(1) (a), (b), (c), (d), (e)

(2) (c), (a), (b), (d), (e)

(3) (b), (a), (c), (d), (e)

(4) (a), (c), (b), (e), (d)

Answer: (4)

77. Assertion (A): Ethics and laws never coincide.

Reason (R): We cannot count on law to keep people ethical

In the context of the two statements which of the following is correct? 

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.

(4) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.

Answer: (4)

78. In addition to various leadership tracts, which of the following identifiable practices are common to leaders?

(a) Challenge the process

(b) Inspire a shared vision

(c) Act alone

(d) Model the way

Select the correct answer in accordance with the code provided

(1) (a), (b) and (c) are correct.

(2) (a), (b) and (d) are correct.

(3) (b), (c) and (d) are correct.

(4) (a), (c) and (d) are correct.

Answer: (2)

79. Match the items of List – I with items of List – II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

List-I

(Managerial Roles)

List-II

(Description)

(a) Figurehead role

(b) Leader role

(c) Liaison role

(d) Spokesperson role

(i) It includes coaching, motivating and encouraging employees

(ii) The role entails spending some time performing ceremonial duties

(iii) The role involves spending lot of time to contact other people within and outside the organisation

(iv) It involves being representative and voice of the organisation

Code:

      (a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(2) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)

(3) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)

(4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

Answer: (2)

80. Assertion (A): In a global hospitality corporation, managers of foreign office tend to be controlled less directly by the home office.

Reason (R): The distance keeps managers from being able to observe work directly. 

In the context of above statements, which one of the following is correct?

(1) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(2) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

(3) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(4) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Answer: (3)

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81. Which one of the following is not a barrier to effective Interpersonal Communication?

(1) Perception

(2) Ambiguity

(3) Semantics

(4) Motivation

Answer: (4)

82. Match items of List – I with items of List – II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

List-I

(Contemporary Organization Designs)

List-II

(Description)

(a) Team Based Structure

(b) Independent Business Units

(c) Boundaryless organizations

(d) Matrix structures

(i) It is organization structure that assigns specialists from different departments to work on a project

(ii) Either the complete organization or a part of it is made up of units that perform the duties necessary to delight the guest

(iii) An organization whose design is not defined by or limited to the horizontal, vertical or external boundaries imposed by a predefined structure

(iv) An organization design that involves making decisions with little or no need to get approval for routine operational decisions

Code:

      (a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(2) (iv) (i) (ii) (ii)

(3) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)

(4) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)

Answer: (3)

83. Assertion (A): Property Management System (PMS) is a computer based lodging information system that relates to both the front-end and back-office activities.

Reason (R): Property Management Systems are used to help complete many tasks within a short period of time.

In the context of above statements, which one of the following is correct?

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) (A) is true but (R) is false.

(3) (A) is false but (R) is true.

(4) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Answer: (4)

84. Following are the stages usually followed in the performance appraisal process. Arrange the stages in a logical sequence using the code that follows the stages:

(a) Job Description

(b) Performance standards setting

(c) Job specification

(d) Performance appraisal

Code:

(1) (a), (b), (c), (d)

(2) (b), (a), (c), (d)

(3) (a), (c), (b), (d)

(4) (c), (a), (b), (d)

Answer: (3)

85. Under inflationary conditions, FIFO method of inventory valuation leads to:

(1) Low profit

(2) High profit

(3) Higher sales

(4) No change in sales

Answer: (2)

86. Which of the following statements are correct?

(a) Operating leverage exits if there are funds bearing fixed financial payments.

(b) If Financial Break Even Point is less than EBIT, EPS will decrease.

(c) According to Modigliani Miller Approach weighted average cost of capital of a firm is independent of its capital structure.

(d) According to Walter’s dividend model, the optimum dividend payout ratio can be either zero or 100.

Code:

(1) Both (a) and (b) are correct.

(2) Both (b) and (c) are correct.

(3) Both (c) and (d) are correct.

(4) Both (a) and (d) are correct.

Answer: (3)

87. Assertion (A): Business risk is independent of capital structure.

Reason (R): Operating profitability is not influenced by the sources from which funds are raised.

In the context of these statements, which of the following is correct?

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct .

(2) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.

(3) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.

(4) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.

Answer: (1)

88. Match the items in List – I with those in List – II and select correct match using the code given below:

List-I

(Decision outcome)

List-II

(Financial Decision)

(a) Long term asset-mix

(b) Profit allocation

(c) Net working capital

(d) Financial risk

(i) Dividend decision

(ii) liquidity decision

(iii) Capital structure decision

(iv) Capital Budgeting decision

Code:

      (a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (iv) (ii) (ii) (i)

(2) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

(3) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

(4) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

Answer: (3)

89. Assertion (A): Maximising market share doesnot result in highest price for a company’s shares.

Reason (R): Market value is not a function of market share.

In the context of the two statements, which of the following is correct?

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is correct and (R) is incorrect.

(4) (A) is incorrect and (R) is correct.

Answer: (1)

90. Under the head ‘Current assets’ of a tourism firm the following items are disclosed:

(a) Interest accrued on investment

(b) Loose tools

(c) Sundry debtors

(d) Work in progress

(e) Stock in trade

(f) Stores and spare parts

The correct chronological order of their disclosure is:

(1) (a), (b), (c), (d), (e), (f)

(2) (a), (f), (b), (e), (d), (c)

(3) (b), (c), (d), (e), (f), (a)

(4) (c), (d), (e), (f), (a), (b)

Answer: (2)

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91. Which one of the following is not an assumption of Walter’s model of Dividend policy?

(1) Constant Internal Rate of Return

(2) Constant cost of equity capital

(3) 100% payout or retention

(4) No Internal financing

Answer: (4)

92. Launching a product in a small part of market is called:

(1) Commercialization

(2) Competitive analysis

(3) Competitive response

(4) Test marketing

Answer: (4)

93. Working capital leverage measures the sensitivity of:

(1) EPS to changes in the level of current assets

(2) ROCE to changes in the level of net current assets

(3) EPS to changes in the level of net current assets

(4) ROCE to changes in the level of current assets

Answer: (4)

94. The capital budget of a Five-star hotel comprises of the following stages:

(a) Project Selection

(b) Project Planning

(c) Project evaluation

(d) Project implementation

(e) Project control

(f) Project Review

The correct sequence of these stages is:

(1) (a), (b), (c), (d), (e), (f)

(2) (b), (c), (a), (d), (e), (f)

(3) (c), (d), (e), (a), (b), (f)

(4) (d), (e), (f), (b), (c), (a)

Answer: (2)

Read the passage below and answer the questions that follow based on your understanding of the passage. Answer the question (from 95 to 100):

One’s perspective on natural versus cultural heritage as a contested hegemony is, to some extent, governed by one’s geographical position. By this I do not just mean a position on the globe, but a discursive position within ongoing discourses concerning the heritage of one’s place on the globe. In discourses influenced by the natural sciences, culture is a heritage of nature, where as in those deriving from the humanities and social sciences, nature is defined socio – culturally.

Scandinavia in view:

If one looks at the definition of Scandinavia in a standard dictionary, it becomes clear that Scandinavia is a function of whether we choose to define it on the basis of natural or cultural criteria. In definition (1) Scandinavia is a ‘peninsula N Europe occupied Norway and Sweden’. This definition leaves those out who reside in Denmark. Definition (2), however counts Dane in, because here Scandinavia is: Denmark, Norway, Sweden and sometimes also Iceland the Faeroe islands, and Finland. Denmark is included because culture not nature, now provides the apparent common denominator for the countries defined as belonging to Scandinavia.

95. Which one of the perspectives is correct?

(1) Natural heritage and Cultural heritage are the two distinct characteristics and are not influenced, by each other.

(2) Natural heritage and Cultural heritage are supplementary and complementary to each other.

(3) Men and beasts are not influenced by natural heritage of a region.

(4) Natural heritage influences only animals and their way of life.

 

Answer: (2)

96. Scandinavia is called Peninsula because:

(1) Scandinavia People are residing there.

(2) It is surrounded by mountains and forest.

(3) Three sides of Scandinavia are surrounded by sea.

(4) Scandinavia is defined by nature and not by culture.

Answer: (3)

97. Is it correct to say?

(1) Culture is heritage of nature

(2) Nature is not the heritage of culture

(3) The way of life of the inhabitants is not influenced by nature or natural heritage

(4) The food production and food habits of the people are largely influenced by the natural heritage

Answer: (4)

98. As per the physical geography Scandinavia Peninsula is situated in the:

(1) Region of Northern Europe

(2) West of France

(3) North-South of Germany

(4) Mediterranean sea

Answer: (1)

99. From the following select group of countries which are identified with Scandinavia by natural and cultural heritage?

(1) France, Germany and Norway

(2) Germany, Sweden and Spain

(3) Norway, Sweden and Denmark

(4) Sweden, Scotland and Italy

Answer: (3)

100. Denmark is identified with the Scandinavia Peninsula because of:

(1) Natural heritage

(2) Cultural heritage

(3) Natural and Cultural heritage both

(4) Common language and way of life

Answer: (2)

Practice makes the man perfect! The more you will practice, the more accuracy you will gain which will eventually lead you to a high score in the exam. Practice will help you in avoiding silly mistakes and making unnecessary guess works while attempting NTA UGC NET 2020 Exam. Therefore, practicing previous year papers will help you in achieving accuracy and high score in NTA UGC NET 2020 Exam.

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