IAS Prelims Exam 2016: CSAT Reading Comprehension Set 6
Now, as per changed pattern of UPSC IAS Prelims Exam, the CSAT paper of UPSC IAS Prelims Exam has been qualifying in nature; however, the UPSC IAS aspirants should not take this paper as so easy affair to crack. If an aspirant could not qualify the General Studies Paper II CSAT then his/her General Studies paper will not be evaluated irrespective of attempting the GS Paper extraordinarily. For the aspirants of Civil Services IAS Prelim Exam 2016, here, we have provided the practice sets of CSAT English Comprehensions:
In Civil Services IAS Prelim Exam, the CSAT paper is qualifying in nature; however, the IAS aspirants should not take this paper as so easy affair to crack. If an aspirant could not qualify the CSAT paper then his/her General Studies paper will not be evaluated irrespective of attempting the GS Paper extraordinarily. So this is important to make sure that your preparation for the CSAT Paper is up to the mark and you will qualify it comfortably.
For the aspirants of Civil Services IAS Prelim Exam 2016, here, we have provided the practice sets of CSAT Reading Comprehensions:
Directions (1 – 12): Read the following passages carefully and answer the questions that follow.
Passage – 1 (4 questions)
The Indian Steel Industry, in line with global trends, is at crossroads, witnessing a resurgent phase of modernization, expansion, a consolidation, mainly through mergers and acquisitions. A sector that was moribund just about five years ago because of a worldwide slump in steel prices, the industry has turned the corner and has in fact been vibrant over the past two years. Domestic steel companies, both public and private, are surging ahead on the strength of an unprecedented buoyancy in the economy; and the resultant boom in real estate; and various infrastructure sectors such as roads & highways, ports & airports. The official figures speak for themselves. Powered by an increased demand for steel from neighboring China, which has been clocking a 15 percent sectorial growth annually on account of construction projects in preparation for the Olympics, the steel industry in India has grown by about 10 percent in the past two years, compared with the global growth rate of about 6 percent a year. The country’s production of crude steel in 2005-06 stood at 42.1 million tonnes, reflecting an increase of 7.1 percent over the previous fiscal. On the other hand, the consumption of steel during the year was pegged at 41.43 million tonnes, a massive growth of 13.88 percent when compared with the 2004-05 figures.
Likewise the production of sponge iron has also increased sharply by 25 percent from about 10.3 million tons in 2004-05 to 12.9 million tons in 2005-06. Currently, India is the largest sponge iron producer and ranks seventh among steel-producing countries. The growth in domestic steel consumption is, by and large, in keeping with the International Iron and Steel Institute (IISI) forecast of a 10 percent increase in steel use in 2006. While the IISI has projected the global demand for steel to grow by 4.9 percent in the medium term up to 2010, it has pegged its forecast for the period 2010-15 at 4.2 percent annually for the entire world. The IISI says India will lead the consumption growth story with an annual demand of 7.7 percent, followed by China with 6.2 percent. More heartening is the indication that the exciting phase in the domestic steel industry is expected to continue for the next five to seven years at the least, in terms of both consumption and production.
1. Which of the following are the reasons for the boom in Steel industry in India?
I. There were a lot of mergers and acquisitions happening across several industrial sectors.
II. As the sector was dull five years ago, it follows a cycle to revitalize itself and hence is purely by chance.
III. The boom in economy that helped in the development of real estate and infrastructure.
a) Only I
b) Only II
c) Only III
d) I and III
Mergers and acquisitions were not the causes for the development, but the results. No such business cycle as in option II can be inferred from the passage. Hence, only option III is correct.
2. Which of the following statements is/are correct according to the passage?
I. It is the Olympics preparation alone that accounted to the 15% rise in demand of steel in China
II. IISI is an autonomous body that has no control by any governments of the world.
III. No other country in the world produces sponge iron as much as India.
a) Only I
b) I and II
c) I and III
d) Only III
Option III can be inferred from the line ‘India is the largest sponge iron producer’ and the other two options cannot be deduced from the passage.
3. According to the author of the passage, what is the future prospect of the Indian steel industry?
a) Steel industry is expected to grow at a rate of moiré than 6% in the next five to seven years.
b) China will continue to lead the demander’s list at 6.2 percentage
c) Indian domestic steel industry will continue to grow at least in the terms of consumption and production in the coming upto seven years.
d) National Steel Policy (NSP) of the UPA government will help reduce the constraints in the growth of steel Industry in India
The second last line of the passage clearly states that the Indian steel industry is expected to continue for the next five to seven years at the least, in terms of both consumption and production.
4. What does the author mean by the word ‘moribund’ in the passage?
a) Being in a state of growth.
b) Being in a state of activity.
c) Being in a state of inactivity.
d) Being in a state of agreement.
The word moribund means being in a state of inactivity or obsolescence.
Passage – 2 (4 questions)
On 7 to 8 August 1942, the All India Congress Committee met in Bombay and ratified the 'Quit India' resolution. Gandhi called for 'Do or Die'. The next day, on 9 August 1942, Gandhi, members of the Congress Working Committee and other Congress leaders were arrested by the British Government under the Defence of India Rules. The Working Committee, the All India Congress Committee and the four Provincial Congress Committees were declared unlawful associations under the Criminal Law Amendment Act of 1908. The assembly of public meetings was prohibited under rule 56 of the Defence of India Rules. The arrest of Gandhi and the Congress leaders led to mass demonstrations throughout India. Thousands were killed and injured in the wake of the 'Quit India' movement. Strikes were called in many places. The British swiftly suppressed many of these demonstrations by mass detentions; more than 100,000 people were imprisoned. The 'Quit India' movement, more than anything, united the Indian people against British rule. Although most demonstrations had been suppressed by 1944, upon his release in 1944 Gandhi continued his resistance and went on a 21-day fast. By the end of the Second World War, Britain's place in the world had changed dramatically and the demand for independence could no longer be ignored.
5. Before the second world war the British:
a) Were considering giving independence to India.
b) Were considering expanding their power in India.
c) Gave no thought to given freedom to India.
d) Were preparing for the war by using Indian men as soldiers.
There was no thought given by the British on giving the Independence to India.
6. What does the word ‘ratified’ mean in the passage?
a) To confirm by expressing disapproval.
b) To confirm by expressing consent.
c) To confirm by expressing dissent.
d) To confirm by expressing suspicion.
The word ratified means to give formal consent to (a treaty, contract, or agreement), making it officially valid.
7. The ratification of Quit India Movement by Congress led to:
a) Mass demonstrations throughout the country.
b) Strikes at several places.
c) Arrest of working committee and other leaders of Congress.
d) Killing of thousands of Indians.
The 2nd and 3rd lines of the paragraph state that the ratification of Quit India Movement lead to arrest of working committee and other leaders of congress.
8. In the context of passage which of the following statement is true:
I. Most of the demonstrations of Quit India movement were suppressed by 1944.
II. Working Committee, the All India Congress Committee and the four Provincial Congress’ were declared unlawful associations under rule 56 of the Defence of India Rules.
a) I only
b) II only
c) Both I and II
d) Neither I nor II
Only statement I is correct as the declaration of being unlawful was not under the Rule 56.
Passage – 3 (4 questions)
It doesn't take long to mark two crosses on a ballot paper, but they are of immense significance. By marking these crosses, the voter is taking the central decision in a democracy: who should govern? This right to participate in elections is guaranteed by the constitution: the Basic Law stipulates that "All state authority is derived from the people." Article 38 states that elections must be "general, direct, free, equal and secret". Elections to the German Bundestag are generally held every four years. The last election was in autumn 2013. Voters will have two decisions to make: their "first vote" determines their choice of constituency candidate, with the candidate who wins the most votes being elected, regardless of how his or her party performs overall. These constituency seats ensure that every region in Germany is represented in the Bundestag. With their "second vote", voters determine the relative strengths of the parties in the Bundestag. The second vote is therefore the decisive vote, as it dictates which parliamentary group or coalition of parties will have a majority allowing them to elect their preferred candidate as Federal Chancellor.
If a party fails to meet the requirement that it receive more than five per cent of all votes cast nationwide (also known as the "five per cent clause"), it is not represented in the Bundestag - unless the party has won at least three constituency seats, in which case it is taken into account in the distribution of seats to the parties' lists in the individual Lander (federal states). The German electoral system is based on proportional representation, but contains elements of first-past-the-post. Who holds the majority in the Bundestag is, however, initially determined by the number of second votes won by the individual parties. Half of the total of 598 Members of the Bundestag are politicians who won the most first votes in one of Germany's 299 constituencies. The other half of the Members are elected via party lists in the individual Lander.
These lists are drawn up by the parties, which nominate candidates they consider to be particularly well-qualified to serve in Parliament - or who are believed to be popular with the electorate. The places at the top of the list are generally considered to be "safe", with election likely. A certain degree of risk remains, however: if the number of constituency seats won by a party is as high as the number of seats it is entitled to according to its share of the second votes, then even the top candidate on the list will not be elected - unless he or she has won a constituency seat. The number of constituency seats won is extremely significant, because it can have a major impact on the composition of Parliament, which is otherwise fixed according to the share of second votes won. If a party wins more constituency seats than it is entitled to according to its share of the second votes, it nonetheless keeps these additional seats, known as "overhang mandates". The other parties then get additional seats also. The Bundestag currently has 630 Members. Parliament will convene for the first time no later than 30 days after the Bundestag elections (Article 39 of the Basic Law) to elect the President of the Bundestag and adopt its Rules of Procedure (Article 40 of the Basic Law).
9. What is the “five percent clause” according to the passage?
a) Five percent clause means that a party will not be represented in the Bundestag if it has received less than 5 percent of second votes casted nationwide until and unless it has won a minimum of 3 constituency seats.
b) No party can represent itself in parliament if it has less than 5 percent first votes.
c) Minimum 5 percent constituency seats are required to be won by a party for representation in the Bundestag.
d) None of the above
The second paragraph clearly states that the five percent clause means that a party will not be represented in the Bundestag if it has received less than 5 percent of second votes casted nationwide until and unless it has won a minimum of 3 constituency seats.
10. Which is the decisive vote in electing “Chancellor” of Germany?
a) First Vote
b) Second Vote
c) Both first vote and second vote
d) None of the above
The party of collation having the highest number of second votes decides and elects the Chancellor.
11. Which of the following is true on basis of passage?
I. Currently there are 598 members in the Bundestag.
II. Chancellor is the highest political post in Germany.
III. Composition of Parliament is fixed on basis of share of first votes won.
IV. German parliament is referred to as Bundestag.
a) I, II and IV
b) II and IV
c) I, II, III and IV
d) Only IV
Currently there are 630 members in the parliament. Nothing is mentioned about Chancellor being the highest post or not in Germany. The composition of parliament is fixed on basis of the second votes won. Only option IV is correct as German parliament is referred to as Bundestag.
12. What can be the suitable title for the passage?
a) The German Bundestag
b) Electoral System of Germany
c) How the Chancellor is elected: A German perspective.
d) The importance of the ‘Second Vote’
The passage basically revolves around the complete electoral system of Germany.