# Memory Based Questions for NTA UGC NET Dec 2018 Exam

In this article, you will get the important memory based questions that came in 22nd, 21st, 20th, 19th and 18th December 2018 Exam (Shift 1 and 2). Let’s have a look at the Important Memory Based Questions that are being covered in the NTA UGC NET December 2018 Exam.

Created On: Dec 24, 2018 11:20 IST
Memory Based Questions for NTA UGC NET Dec 2018 Exam

NTA UGC NET December 2018 Exam has been started from 18th December 2018 and will last till 22nd December, 2018. In this article we are going to share the most important memory based questions as per the feedback received by the candidates who have appeared for UGC NET Exam this year. Candidates are advised to definitely cover these topics for scoring high marks in the Exam.

Let’s have a look at the Important Topics that are being covered in the NTA UGC NET December 2018 Exam:

## IMPORTANT TOPICS FOR NTA UGC NET DECEMBER 2018 EXAM

Category/ Average Number of Questions Asked

Memory Based Important Topics

Difficulty Level

Teaching Aptitude

(10-12)

Teaching Methods, Teaching : Nature, objectives, characteristics and basic requirements

Moderate to Difficult

Research Aptitude

(8-10)

Research: Meaning, characteristics and types; Steps of research

Methods of research; Research Paper Writing and Methods

Difficult

4-5 (1 set)

Short Passage

Easy to Moderate

Communication

3-4

Communication Nature, characteristics, types, barriers and effective classroom communication

Easy to Moderate

Maths

3-4

Time & Work; Time, Speed & Distance; Boats and Streams, Average, Probability; Geometry and Mensuration

Easy to Moderate

Logical Reasoning

7-8

Blood Relationship, Syllogism, Number Series, Coding Decoding, Direction Test, Alphabet Series

Easy

Data Interpretation

4-5 (1 set)

Table Chart involving the concepts of Percentage and Average

Easy to Moderate

Information & Communication Technology (ICT)/ Computer Knowledge

3-4

LAN, WAN, Bluetooth, ROM RAM, Full Forms, Primary & Secondary Storage, World Wide Web, Internet, Decimal to Binary, TB/GB/MB

Moderate

People & Environment

1-2

Ozone Layer, Conservation of Energy, Fuel Efficiency, Agriculture, Sustainable Development, Carbon Emission

Moderate

Current Affairs

3-4

NITI AYOG: Backward Districts List, Parameters; Swatch Bharat, Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana, National and International Appointments

Easy to Moderate

Total Questions

50 Questions of 2 Marks each

Easy to Difficult

Click here for the Exam Analysis of NTA UGC NET DEC 2018 Exam

As per the feedback shared by the candidates who have appered this year for UGC NET Exam Paper-I is of Easy to moderate level. However Questions in Paper—II is of Moderate to Difficult level. Let’s have a look at the Important Memory Based Questions that are being covered in the NTA UGC NET December 2018 Exam.

## Teaching Aptitude

1. Which of the following set of statements best describes the nature and objectives of teaching?

(a) Teaching and learning are integrally related.

(b) There is no difference between teaching and training.

(c) Concern of all teaching is to ensure some kind of transformation in students.

(d) All good teaching is formal in nature.

(e) A teacher is a senior person.

(f) Teaching is a social act whereas learning is a personal act.

Code:

(1) (a), (b) and (d)

(2) (b), (c) and (e)

(3) (a), (c) and (f)

(4) (d), (e) and (f)

2. Which of the following learner characteristics is highly related to effectiveness of teaching?

(1) Prior experience of the learner

(2) Educational status of the parents of the learner

(3) Peer groups of the learner

(4) Family size from which the learner comes.

3. In the two sets given below Set - I indicates methods of teaching while Set - II provides the basic requirements for success/effectiveness. Match the two sets and indicate your answer by choosing from the code:

 Set - I (Method of teaching) Set - II (Basic requirements for success/effectiveness) (a) Lecturing (b) Discussion in groups (c) Brainstorming (d) Programmed Instructional (i) Small step presentation with feedback provided (ii) Production of large number of ideas (iii) Content delivery in a lucid language (iv) Use of teaching-aids procedure (v) Theme based interaction among participants

Code:

(a)          (b)          (c)           (d)

(1)          (i)            (ii)           (iii)          (iv)

(2)          (ii)           (iii)          (iv)         (v)

(3)          (iii)          (v)          (ii)           (i)

(4)          (iv)         (ii)           (i)            (iii)

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## Research Aptitude

4. There are two sets given below. Set - I specifies the types of research, while Set - II indicates their characteristics. Match the two and give your answer by selecting the appropriate code.

 Set - I (Research types) Set - II (Characteristics) (a) Fundamental research (b) Applied research (c) Action research (d) Evaluative research (i) Finding out the extent of perceived impact of an intervention (ii) Developing an effective explanation through theory building (iii) Improving an existing situation through use of interventions (iv) Exploring the possibility of a theory for use in various situations (v) Enriching technological resources

Code:

(a)          (b)          (c)           (d)

(1)          (ii)           (iv)        (iii)           (i)

(2)          (v)          (iv)         (iii)           (ii)

(3)          (i)            (ii)         (iii)          (iv)

(4)          (ii)           (iii)         (iv)          (v)

5. Which of the sets of activities best indicate the cyclic nature of action research strategy?

(1) Reflect, Observe, Plan, Act

(2) Observe, Act, Reflect, Plan

(3) Act, Plan, Observe, Reflect

(4) Plan, Act, Observe, Reflect

6. Which of the following sequences of research steps is nearer to scientific method?

(1) Suggested solution of the problem, Deducing the consequences of the solution, Perceiving the problem situation, Location of the difficulty and testing the solutions.

(2) Perceiving the problem situation, Locating the actual problem and its definition, Hypothesizing, Deducing the consequences of the suggested solution and Testing the hypothesis in action.

(3) Defining a problem, Identifying the causes of the problem, Defining a population, Drawing a sample, Collecting data and Analysing results.

(4) Identifying the causal factors, Defining the problem, Developing a hypothesis, Selecting a sample, Collecting data and arriving at generalizations and Conclusions.

7. The problem of ‘research ethics’ is concerned with which aspect of research activities?

(1) Following the prescribed format of a thesis

(2) Data analysis through qualitative or quantitative techniques

(3) Defining the population of research

(4) Evidence based research reporting

Click here to know the latest Exam Pattern and Syllabus of NTA UGC NET Dec 2018 Exam

If India has to develop her internal strengths, the nation has to focus on the technological imperatives, keeping in mind three dynamic dimensions: the people, the overall economy and the strategic interests. These technological imperatives also take into account a ‘fourth’ dimension, time, an offshoot of modern day dynamism in business, trade, and technology that leads to continually shifting targets. We believe that technological strengths are especially crucial in dealing with this fourth dimension underlying continuous change in the aspirations of the people, the economy in the global context, and the strategic interests. The progress of technology lies at the heart of human history. Technological strengths are the key to creating more productive employment in an increasingly competitive market place and to continually upgrade human skills. Without a pervasive use of technologies, we cannot achieve overall development of our people in the years to come. The direct linkages of technology to the nation’s strategic strengths are becoming more and more clear, especially since 1990s. India’s own strength in a number of core areas still puts it in a position of reasonable strength in geo-political context. Any nation aspiring to become a developed one needs to have strengths in various strategic technologies and also the ability to continually upgrade them through its own creative strengths. For people-oriented actions as well, whether for the creation of large scale productive employment or for ensuring nutritional and health security for people, or for better living conditions, technology is the only vital input. The absence of greater technological impetus could lead to lower productivity and wastage of precious natural resources. Activities with low productivity or low value addition, in the final analysis hurt the poorest most. The technological imperatives to lift our people to a new life, and to a life they are entitled to is important. India, aspiring to become a major economic power in terms of trade and increase in GDP, cannot succeed on the strength of turnkey projects designed and built abroad or only through large-scale imports of plant machinery, equipment and know how. Even while being alive to the short-term realities, medium and long-term strategies to develop core technological strengths within our industry are vital for envisioning a developed India.

8. Envisioning a developed India requires:

(1) Dependence upon projects designed abroad

(2) Focus on short-term projects

(3) Development of core technological strengths

(4) Aspiration to become a major economic player

9. Absence of technology would lead to:

(a) Less pollution

(b) Wastage of precious natural resources

(d) Hurting the poorest most

Code:

(1) (b), (c) and (d) only

(2) (a), (b) and (d) only

(3) (a), (c) and (d) only

(4) (a), (b) and (c) only

10. The advantage of technological inputs would result in:

(1) Importing plant machinery

(2) Sidelining environmental issues

(3) Lifting our people to a life of dignity

(4) Unbridled technological growth

11. According to the above passage, which of the following are indicative of the fourth dimension?

(a) Aspirations of people

(b) Modern day dynamism

(c) Economy in the global context

(d) Strategic interests

Code:

(1) (b), (c) and (d) only

(2) (a), (c) and (d) only

(3) (a), (b) and (d) only

(4) (a), (b) and (c) only

12. More productive employment demands:

(1) Limiting competitive market place

(2) Geo-political considerations

(3) Large industries

(4) Pervasive use of technology

## Communication

13. Which of the following set of statements is correct for describing the human communication process?

(a) Non-verbal communication can stimulate ideas.

(b) Communication is a learnt ability.

(c) Communication is not a universal panacea.

(d) Communication cannot break-down.

(e) More communication means more effective learning by students.

(f) Value of what is learnt through classroom communication is not an issue for students.

Code:

(1) (a), (c), (e) and (f)

(2) (b), (d), (e) and (f)

(3) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

(4) (a), (d), (e) and (f)

14. Differentiation between acceptance and non-acceptance of certain stimuli in classroom communication is the basis of:

(1) selective affiliation to peer groups

(2) selective attention

(3) selective morality

(4) selective expectation of performance

## Maths

15. A river runs at 3 kmph. If the time taken by a man to row his boat upstream is twice the time taken by him to row it downstream, then at what speed can he row his boat in still water?

1)      12 kmph

2)      11 kmph

3)      9 kmph

4)      7 kmph

16. Out of 11 persons, 10 persons spent Rs. 35 each for their meals. The 11th one spent Rs. 40 more than the average expenditure of all the nine. The total money spent by all of them was:

1)      Rs. 492.50

2)      Rs. 497.50

3)      Rs. 429

4)      Rs. 498.50

17. A bus started its journey from Rohtak and reached Hisar in 45 minutes at its average speed of 120 km/hr. If the average speed of the bus is decreased by 12 km/hour, how much time will it take to cover the same distance?

1)      40 minutes

2)      38minutes

3)      36 minutes

4)      50 minutes

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## Logical Reasoning

18. The next term in the series −1, 5, 15, 29, ? , ... is:

(1) 36

(2) 47

(3) 59

(4) 63

19. The next term in the series ABD, DGK, HMS, MTB, SBL, ? , ... is:

(1) ZKU

(2) ZCA

(3) ZKW

(4) KZU

20. If VARANASI is coded as WCUESGZQ, then the code of KOLKATA will be:

(1) LOQOZEH

(2) HLZEOOQ

(3) ZELHOQO

(4) LQOOFZH

21. Introducing Rakesh to her husband a women said, “His brother’s father is the only son of my grandfather”. The woman is related to Rakesh as:

(1) Aunt

(2) Mother

(3) Sister

(4) Daughter

## Data Interpretation

The table below embodies data on the production, exports and per capita consumption of rice in country P for the five years from 2012 to 2016. Answer questions based on the data contained in the table.

 Year-wise Production, Exports and Per Capita Consumption of Rice Year Production (in million kg) Exports (in million kg) Per Capita Consumption (in kg) 2012 186.5 114 36.25 2013 202 114 35.2 2014 238 130 38.7 2015 221 116 40.7 2016 215 88 42

Where, Per Capita Consumption = (Consumption in million kg) ÷ (Population in million) and consumption (in million kg) = Production - Exports.

22. The percentage increase in the consumption of rice over the previous year was the highest in which year?

(1) 2013

(2) 2014

(3) 2015

(4) 2016

23. What is the population of the country in the year 2014 (in million)?

(1) 2.64

(2) 2.72

(3) 2.79

(4) 2.85

24. The ratio of exports to consumption in the given period was the highest in the year:

(1) 2012

(2) 2013

(3) 2014

(4) 2015

25. In which year, the population of country was the highest?

(1) 2013

(2) 2014

(3) 2015

(4) 2016

26. What is the average consumption of rice (in million kg) over the years 2012-2016?

(1) 104

(2) 102.1

(3) 108

(4) 100.1

Click here to know the UGC NET Exam Previous Year Cut-Off Marks

## Computer Knowledge

27. Whichof the following is not true about RAM?

1) RAM is a temporary storage area

2) RAM is the same as hard disk storage

3) RAM is volatile

4) Information stored in RAM is gone when you turn the computer off

28. Most World Wide Web pages contain commands in the language _______________

1) NIH

2) URL

3) HTML

4) IRC

29. Which one of the following would not be considered as a form of secondary storage?

1) Floppy Disk

2) Optical Disk

3) RAM

4) Flash Drive

30. What does the acronym WAN stand for?

(1) Widest Area Network

(2) Wild Area Network

(3) Wide Area Networking

(4) Wide Area Network

31. FTP is an acronym for–

(1) File Transaction Protocol

(2) File Truncation Protocol

(3) File Translation Protocol

(4) File Transfer Protocol

32. Bluetooth is a type of radio wave information transmission system that is good for about ____________

1) 30 feet

2) 30 yards

3) 30 miles

4) 300 miles

## People and Environment

33. In terms of their contribution to the total power generation in India, identify the correct sequence of energy sources - Thermal Power Plants (TPP), Large Hydropower Projects (LHP), Nuclear Energy (NE) and Renewable Energy (RE) which includes solar energy, wind energy, biomass and small hydropower projects.

(1) TPP > LHP > RE > NE

(2) LHP > TPP > RE > NE

(3) LHP > TPP > NE > RE

(4) TPP > RE > LHP > NE

34. ‘Fly ash’ produced in thermal power plants is an ecofriendly resource for use in:

(a) agriculture as micro-nutrient

(b) wasteland development

(c) dam and water holding structures

(d) brick industry

Choose the correct answer from the code given below:

(1) (b), (c) and (d) only

(2) (a), (c) and (d) only

(3) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

(4) (a), (b) and (d) only

## Current Affairs

35. Total number of aspirational districts have been selected in the country under Aspirational Districts scheme by NITI Aayog?

1) 133 Districts

2) 101 Districts

3) 115 Districts

4) 174 Districts

36. Which of the following is a comprehensive project released by NITI Aayog for introducing system-wide governance transformation in school education?

1) NMSA

2) AIM

3) to provide free education loan to BPL

3) SATH-E Programme

4) PMVVY

37. The aim of Pradhan Mantri UwaIa Yojana is ....?

1) to provide Free LED Lights

2) to provide cooking gas connections to 5 crore BPL beneficiaries

4) to provide Electricity Connection to all farmers.

Explanation:  Pnme Minister. Shri Narendra Modi, today launched the Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana at Ballia , Uttar Pradesh. The scheme aims to provide cooking gas connections to five crore below-poverty-line beneficiaries by 2018.