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UGC NET July 2018 Paper-II Public Administration Previous Year Paper with Answers

Jun 14, 2019 12:45 IST
UGC NET July 2018 Paper-II Public Administration Previous Year Paper with Answers

For cracking NTA UGC NET December 2018 Exam, candidates must practice the previous year papers of the different subjects for which they are applying this year. It will help them in improving their speed of attempting maximum questions in minimum time with accuracy. So, in this article we have shared the UGC NET July 2018 Paper-II Public Administration Previous Year Paper held on 8th July, 2018 alongwith their answers.

UGC NET July 2018 Paper-II Public Administration Previous Year Paper with Answers

1. Woodrow Wilson’s article, “The Study of Administration” was published in which of the following journal in the year 1887?

(1) Political Science

(2) Public Administration

(3) Political Science Quarterly

(4) Public Administration Review

2. Who among the following advocated ‘Initiative’ as a principle of Administration?

(1) Woodrow Wilson

(2) R.B. Denhardt

(3) Henri Fayol

(4) Lyndall Urwick

3. Which one of the following is not correct in relation to New Public Administration?

(1) Value neutrality in its approach

(2) Stresses for structural changes

(3) Focus on client centricity

(4) Relevant to social realities

4. Which of the following are correct regarding the thurst areas of New Public Management?

(a) Down Sizing of Bureaucracy

(b) Minimal state

(c) Maximum government

(d) New ways for delivery of Public Services

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

(1) (a), (b), (c)

(2) (b), (c), (d)

(3) (a), (b), (d)

(4) (a), (c), (d)

5. In order to address the difficulties due to lack of coordination among governmental institutions /agencies, the Third Minnowbrook conference introduced a new concept known as:

(1) Interoperability

(2) Collaborative governance

(3) Network society

(4) Deliberative democracy

6. Assertion (A): Public Administration is benefited by easy availability of new tools of communication following the Information Technology.

Reason (R): E-governance has become acceptable form in contemporary governance, not only because it is cost-efficient, but also because it is transparent and time-saving.

Code:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false but (R) is true.

7. According to F.W. Taylor which one of the following is not a quality of a good ‘foreman’?

(1) Manual Dexterity and Strength

(2) Tact

(3) Judgement

(4) Competence

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8. Match List - I with List - II. Select the correct answer from the code given below.

List - I (Author)

List - II (Book)

(a) George H. Frederickson

(b) F.A. Nigro and L.G. Nigro

(c) Victor A. Thompson

(d) Peter M. Blau

(i) Modern Organization

(ii) New Public Administration

(iii) Modern Public Administration

(iv) Bureaucracy in Modern Society

Code:

     (a) (b) (c)  (d)

(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(2) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

(3) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)

(4) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)

9. Who among the following translated Max Weber’s book Wirtschaft and Gesellschaft into English?

(1) Robert Presthus

(2) Edward A. Shils and Henry A. Finch

(3) Talcott Parsons

(4) Robert Merton

10. Chronologically arrange the Elton Mayo’s studies in an ascending order.

(a) Great Illumination

(b) First Inquiry (c) Social Organization

(d) Human sentiments

(e) Absenteeism

Select the correct answer by using code given below:

Code:

(1) (c), (d), (e), (b) and (a)

(2) (c), (b), (e), (a) and (d)

(3) (b), (a), (d), (c) and (e)

(4) (a), (b), (c), (d) and (e)

11. Which of the following is not correct regarding the closeness of administrative management to Weberian Bureaucratic Theory?

(1) Both concern with optimal organisation of administrators than production workers.

(2) Both hold economic efficiency as its ultimate criterion.

(3) Both concern for more organisation than its man.

(4) Both consider the organisation as a unit of its environment.

12. Which one of the following stands for Impoverished Management Style as per Blake and Mouton Managerial Grid?

(1) Low concern for result and Low concern for people

(2) Low concern for result and high concern for people

(3) High concern for result and Low concern for people

(4) High concern for people and High concern for result

13. Match List - I with List - II. Select the correct answer from the code given below.

List - I (Main Activity)

List - II (Agency)

(a) Concerned with the object of the organization

(b) Expert in their area of work

(c) Prevent the executive from taking hasty and wrong decisions

(d) Responsible for housekeeping and purchasing

(i) Technical Staff Agency

(ii) Line Agency

(iii) Staff Agency

(iv) Auxiliary Staff Agency

Code:

     (a) (b) (c)  (d)

(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(2) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)

(3) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

(4) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)

14. Assertion (A): The field Establishments are the implementing divisions of the Department.

Reason (R): The success of development programmes depends to a greater extent upon the effective functioning of the field establishments.

Code:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is correct.

15. Match List - I with List - II. Select the correct answer from the code given below.

List - I (Kind of Authority)

List - II (Characteristic)

(a) Direct Authority

(b) Delegated Authority

(c) Functional Authority

(d) Personal Authority

(i) Intrinsic by special knowledge

(ii) Based on seniority

(iii) Intermediate agency between issuer and accepter

(iv) Unbroken line between issuer and acceptor

Code:

      (a)  (b) (c) (d)

(1) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)

(2) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

(3) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)

(4) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)

16. Which one of the following leadership theories believes that “A leader is born and is not made”?

(1) Trait theory

(2) Chrismatic theory

(3) Behavioural theory

(4) Situational theory

17. Arrange the following books in chronological sequence of their year of publications.

(i) ‘Policy and Administration’ by Paul Appleby

(ii) ‘Motivation and Personality’ by Abraham Maslow

(iii) ‘The Art of Administration’ by Ordway Tead

(iv) ‘Work and Nature of Man’ by Frederick Herzberg

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

(1) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

(2) (i), (iii), (ii), (iv)

(3) (ii), (iii), (iv), (i)

(4) (iii), (i), (iv), (ii)

18. Who of the following has given the concept of ‘Knowledge Worker’?

(1) Rensis Likert

(2) Jane Mouton

(3) Robert R. Blake

(4) Peter Drucker

19. The idea that ‘an employee is responsible to only one supervisor, who in turn is responsible to only one supervisor, and so on up the top organizational hierarchy’ is defined as:

(1) Unity of Direction

(2) Subordination of Individual Interest

(3) Esprit de Corps

(4) Unity of Command

20. According to Douglas McGregor, which of the following is a Perennial Question in Management?

(1) Successful managers are product of situation.

(2) Successful managers are born or made.

(3) Successful managers are not born but made.

(4) Successful managers are born, not made.

21. Match List - I with List - II. Select the correct answer from the code given below.

List - I (Author)

List - II (Book)

(a) Dwight Waldo

(b) Douglas McGregor

(c) George Gant

(d) Nicholas Henry

(i) Development Administration

(ii) The Administrative State

(iii) Leadership and Motivation

(iv) Public Administration and Public Affairs

Code:

     (a) (b) (c)  (d)

(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(2) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)

(3) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)

(4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

22. Which of the following is not included in conceptual approaches of comparative Public Administration by Henderson?

(1) Bureaucratic System Approach

(2) Human Relations Approach

(3) Decision Making Approach

(4) Component Approach

23. Which one of the following model is based on a synthesis of concepts of general system theory of communication, cybernetics and energy conversion?

(1) Transactional Model of Communication

(2) Information - Energy Model

(3) Communication Process Model

(4) Shannon Weaver’s Model of Communication

24. The practice in U.S.A. by which one or more senators attempt to delay or block a vote on a bill by extending debate for an indefinite time on a proposed bill is known as:

(1) Gerrymander

(2) Filibuster

(3) Capitol

(4) Absolute mandate

25. Which one of the following statement is incorrect regarding F.W. Riggs theory of Prismatic Society Revisited?

(1) He modified his original views about the prismatic society in 1975.

(2) He adopted two dimensional approach for propounding this new theory.

(3) He introduced the degree of differentiation as the second dimension.

(4) Prismatic societies are divided into co-prismatic, orthoprismatic and neoprismatic.

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26. Who among the following advocated for ISO certified ‘Sevottam’ model for strengthening the network of ‘grievance redressal mechanism and an effective system of citizen’s charter?

(1) Report of Sixth Pay Commission

(2) Report of the National Sub Committee of Central Information Commission 2008

(3) II ARC - 12th Report on Citizen-centric Administration

(4) Annual Convention of Central Information Commission 2017

27. Which of the following is a oldest Municipal Corporation in the World outside U.K.?

(1) British Columbia (Canada)

(2) Connecticut (USA)

(3) Paris (French)

(4) Madras (Chennai India)

28. Which of the following are correct regarding the characteristics of Development Administration?

(a) Client - orientation

(b) Time - orientation

(c) Structure - orientation

(d) Action - orientation

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

(1) (a), (b), (c)

(2) (a), (b), (d)

(3) (b), (c), (d)

(4) (a), (c), (d)

29. Assertion (A): The Development Administration is ecological in nature.

Reason (R): The outcome of developmental activities are conditioned by the socioeconomic and political factors.

Code:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false but (R) is correct.

30. The Administrative Development is concerned with:

(a) increasing Administrative capability and capacity

(b) modernizing bureaucracy

(c) administrative reorganization and rationalization

(d) administration of developmental programmes

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

(1) (a), (b)

(2) (a), (b), (c)

(3) (b), (c), (d)

(4) (a), (b), (c), (d)

31. Which of the following country was first to introduce the freedom of the Press Act, 1766?

(1) United Kingdom

(2) Sweden

(3) Denmark

(4) Norway

32. Consider the following statements about Comptroller and Auditor General of India and Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) C & AG is appointed by the President under Article 148(1) of the Constitution.

(b) His salary is determined by the Ministry of Finance.

(c) He takes oath according to the form set out for the purpose in the Third Schedule.

(d) The administrative expenses of his office are charged upon Consolidated Fund of India.

Code:

(1) (a), (b)

(2) (a), (b), (c)

(3) (a), (c), (d)

(4) (a), (b), (c), (d)

33. Union Public Service Commission submits its Annual Report to the President under which of the following Article of the Constitution of India?

(1) 317

(2) 320

(3) 323

(4) 323 A

34. Match List - I with List - II. Select the correct answer from the code given below.

List - I (Training Institution)

List - II (Place)

(a) Indian Revenue Service Training Institute

(b) All India Institute of Local Self Government

(c) Railway Staff College

(d) National Institute of Rural Development

(i) Vadodara

(ii) Hyderabad

(iii) Mumbai

(iv) Nagpur

Code:

     (a) (b) (c)  (d)

(1) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)

(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(3) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)

(4) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

35. Chronologically arrange the submission of the Reports of Committees to Government of India on various aspects of Civil Services.

(a) Yoginder K. Alagh Committee

(b) A. Ramaswami Mudaliar Committee

(c) Satish Chandra Committee

(d) Surinder Nath Committee

Code:

(1) (a), (b), (c), (d)

(2) (b), (c), (d), (a)

(3) (b), (c), (a), (d)

(4) (b), (a), (d), (c)

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36. Which of the following Articles of the Constitution are dealing with the ‘Office of Profit’?

(1) 102(1) and 312

(2) 191(1) and 197

(3) 102(1) and 191(1)

(4) 312 and 197

37. Which one of the following is not a dimension of Overlapping?

(1) Bazaar - Canteen Model

(2) Poly - Communalism

(3) Nepotism

(4) Integration

38. Which one of the following is incorrect regarding the objectives of Development Administration?

(1) Economic Growth

(2) Social Justice

(3) Democratization of system

(4) Maintaining status-quo

39. Which one of the following defined sustainable development as “development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs”?

(1) UN conference on Human Environment

(2) UN Resolution on The Future We Want

(3) Bruntland Commission’s Report-‘Our Common Future’

(4) Sustainable Development Goals

40. Consider the following about the Prime Minister’s Office (P.M.O.) in India and select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) It enjoys status of a department.

(b) It has replaced Prime Ministers Secretariat (P.M.S.)

(c) It has few attached and subordinate offices under it.

(d) It is a line agency.

Code:

(1) (a), (b)

(2) (a), (b), (c)

(3) (a), (c), (d)

(4) (a), (b), (c), (d)

41. Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India are related to the distribution of Legislative powers between Union and the States?

(1) Article 245 to 263

(2) Article 245 to 255

(3) Article 246 to 290

(4) Article 245 to 300

42. Which of the following is not included in Seven Point Directives issued by Supreme Court of India in 2006 with regard to Police Reforms?

(1) Constitution of a State Security Commission (SSC)

(2) Setting up a Police Complaints Authority (PCA)

(3) Setting up a Networking of Police Organizations

(4) Setting up a Police Establishment Board

43. Which one of the following states in India spent highest percentage of state budget on police expenditure during 2015-16?

(1) Jammu & Kashmir

(2) Punjab

(3) Nagaland

(4) Manipur

44. According to 14th Report of 2nd ARC which of the following is/are the core principle/s of Financial System in India?

(a) Focus on results

(b) Adopting modern financial management practices

(c) Budgeting to realistic

(d) Transparency and simplicity

Select the correct answer by using code given below:

(1) (a), (d)

(2) (b), (c), (d)

(3) (a), (c), (d)

(4) (a), (b), (c), (d)

45. Who among following made poetic description about collector during British rule as:

“In framing rules for primary schools

on rural exploration

My active mind shall seek and find

congenial occupation”.

(1) Phillip Woodruff

(2) O’ Malley

(3) Ramesh Chandra Dutta

(4) Ananda ram Baruah

46. Central Vigilance Commission is a:

(1) Constitutional body

(2) Statutory body

(3) Judicial body

(4) Executive body

47. Which one of following is correct regarding Second Administrative Reforms Commission’s recommendation on the tenure of the chief secretary?

(1) 1 Year

(2) 2 Years

(3) 3 Years

(4) 4 Years

48. Match List - I with List - II. Select the correct answer from the code given below.

List - I (Chairman)

List - II (Committee)

(a) D.S. Kothari

(b) Satish Chandra

(c) Y.K. Alagh

(d) B.N. Yugandhar

(i) Committee on the Recruitment of Civil Services

(ii) Committee to Review in-Service Training of IAS officers

(iii) Committee on the Recruitment Policy and Selection Method

(iv) Committee on Civil Service Examination

Code:

     (a)  (b) (c) (d)

(1) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)

(2) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)

(3) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)

(4) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)

49. Assertion (A): The Money Bill can be introduced in any House of Parliament only on the recommendation of the President.

Reason (R): The approval of money bill by the Rajya Sabha is, in effect, only formal and routine process.

Code:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false but (R) is true.

50. Which of the following is the time period fixed for implementation of 14th Finance Commission Report?

(1) 2014 - 2019

(2) 2015 - 2020

(3) 2016 - 2021

(4) 2017 - 2022

51. Which of the following statements are true regarding ‘United Nations’ Sustainable Development Goals or 2030 Agenda?

(a) The Agenda is a broad intergovernmental agreement that acts Post - 2015 Development Agenda.

(b) It does not distinguish between “developed” and “developing” nations.

(c) It is based on the United Nations resolution entitled “The future we want”.

(d) The role of global civil society is significantly restricted in this Agenda.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

(1) (a), (b), (c)

(2) (a), (c), (d)

(3) (a), (b), (d)

(4) (a), (b), (c), (d)

52. Which one of the following committee/commission recommended the introduction of Performance Budget in India?

(1) C. Rangrajan Committee

(2) L.K. Jha Commission

(3) First Administrative Reforms Commission

(4) Second Administrative Reforms Commission

53. Which of the following statements regarding the Whistle blowers Protection (Amendment) Bill, 2015 are true?

(a) The term Public Servant includes the higher judiciary.

(b) It prohibits any person to report any corrupt act if it relates to security of India.

(c) It prohibits disclosure of those acts which are prohibited under the Official Secrets Act, 1923.

(d) Any person who makes any disclosure which is false or misleading shall be punishable with an imprisonment upto 2 years or a time upto ` 30, 000.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

(1) (a), (b), (c)

(2) (b), (c), (d)

(3) (a), (c), (d)

(4) (a), (b), (c), (d)

54. Which of the following are the principles of Budgeting?

(a) Balanced

(b) Comprehensiveness

(c) Estimates on a revenue basis

(d) Rule of Lapse

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

(1) (a), (b), (c), (d)

(2) (a), (b), (c)

(3) (a), (b), (d)

(4) (b), (c), (d)

55. Match List - I with List - II. Select the correct answer from the code given below:

List - I (Concepts)

List - II (Explanation)

(a) Integrity

(b) Honesty

(c) Objectivity

(d) Impartiality

(i) advice and decisions are based on rigorous analysis of the evidences

(ii) putting obligations of Public Service above personal interest

(iii) acting solely according to merit of cause and serving equally

(iv) truthfulness and openness

Code:

      (a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)

(2) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)

(3) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)

(4) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)

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56. Who states that “Science is an attempt of the human mind to find a connection between world of ideas and the world of phenomena”?

(1) P.V. Young

(2) J.J. Thompson

(3) Einstein and Infeld

(4) Goode and Hatt

57. Which one of the following is not a Maharatna Company Currently?

(1) Coal India

(2) Indian Oil Corporation

(3) National Aluminium Company

(4) Bharat Heavy Electrical Limited

58. The main elements of Government Policy towards Public Sector Enterprises under New Economic Policy, 1991 were:

(a) Disinvestment of Government equity in all non-strategic Public Sector undertakings to 26 percent or lower if necessary.

(b) Those Public Sector enterprises which are potentially viable have to be restructured and revived.

(c) Welcoming Private Foreign Investment and Foreign Technology.

(d) Those Public Sector undertakings which cannot be revived would be closed down.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

(1) (a), (b), (c)

(2) (a), (b), (d)

(3) (b), (c), (d)

(4) (a), (b), (c), (d)

59. Which one of the following principles provides protection against the effects of extraneous factors in an experimental research design based study?

(1) Principle of Replication

(2) Principle of Randomization

(3) Principle of Local Control

(4) Principle of Matching

60. Which of following is incorrect about the merit of interview method?

(1) Higher yield of responses

(2) Higher reliability of responses

(3) Procurement of supplementary information

(4) Possible to ignore the effects of human equations

61. Read the following statements and select the correct characteristics of usable hypotheses by using code given below:

(a) Hypotheses should be related to a body of a theory.

(b) Hypotheses should be empirically testable.

(c) Hypotheses should be grandiose in scope.

(d) Hypotheses should be specific one.

Code:

(1) (a), (b), (c)

(2) (a), (c), (d)

(3) (b), (c), (d)

(4) (a), (b), (d)

62. The Public Sector Undertaking (PSU)/ Public Sector Enterprise that has an average annual turnover of more than Rs. 25,000 crore/an average annual net worth of more than Rs. 15,000 crore during last three years is called:

(1) Miniratna Category I

(2) Miniratna Category II

(3) Navaratna

(4) Maharatna

63. Which of following is not a characteristic of the scientific method?

(1) Reliance on empirical evidences

(2) Commitment to objectivity

(3) Value orientation

(4) Generality

64. Consider the following statements on the objectives of the foundation course of Training to the civil servants in India.

(a) Imparts basic understanding of the environment of the government.

(b) Fosters the attitudes and values required in every civil servant.

(c) Develops the professional competence.

(d) Develops the esprit de corps among officers of different services.

Select the correct answer by using the code given below:

(1) (a), (b), (c)

(2) (a), (c), (d)

(3) (a), (b), (d)

(4) (a), (b), (c), (d)

65. Chronologically arrange the themes of Davos conferences of different years:

(a) Rethink, Redesign and Rebuild

(b) Responsive and Responsible Leadership

(c) Resilient Dynamism

(d) Creating a shared Future in a Fractured world

Select the correct answer by using code given below:

(1) (a), (b), (c), (d)

(2) (b), (c), (d), (a)

(3) (a), (c), (b), (d)

(4) (b), (d), (c), (a)

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66. “Corporate Governance reforms are and should be seen as part and parcel of the broader Central Public Sector Enterprises reform program rather than as a stand-alone or substitute reform in India”. This recommendation was made by which agency?

(1) World Bank

(2) International Monetary Fund

(3) Asian Development Bank

(4) Department of Public Enterprises - India

67. Match List - I with List - II. Select the correct answer from the code given below:

List - I (Commission)

List - II (Chairman)

(a) Expenditure Commission

(b) Commission on Reforms of Criminal Justice System

(c) Second Commission on Centre-State Relations

(d) Seventh Pay Commission

(i) A.K. Mathur

(ii) K.P. Geetha Krishanan

(iii) M.M. Punchhi

(iv) V. Malimath

Code:

      (a) (b)  (c) (d)

(1) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)

(2) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)

(3) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)

(4) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

68. NITI Aayog’s ‘Three Year Action Agenda’ covering policy changes and programmes for action plan is related to which of the following period?

(1) 2014 - 15 to 2016 - 2017

(2) 2015 - 16 to 2017 - 2018

(3) 2016 - 17 to 2018 - 2019

(4) 2017 - 18 to 2019 - 2020

69. Which of the following is correct regarding the subject matter of Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment?

(a) Scheduled Castes

(b) Scheduled Tribes

(c) Minorities Affairs

(d) Differently Abled Persons

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

(1) (a), (b), (c)

(2) (b), (c), (d)

(3) (a), (d)

(4) (b), (c)

70. Which of the following State Taxes that have been subsumed within the Goods and Services Tax?

(a) State VAT

(b) Sales Tax

(c) Service Tax

(d) Entry Tax (All Forms)

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

(1) (a), (b), (c)

(2) (a), (b), (c), (d)

(3) (a), (b), (d)

(4) (b), (c), (d)

71. Which of the following are the key challenges listed in “Some inputs for Draft National Education Policy, 2016” by the Ministry of Human Resource Development?

Select the correct answer by using code given below:

(a) Quality of the education imparted

(b) Equity in education

(c) Pre-School education for children in the age group of 4 - 5 years should be declared as a right

(d) Financial commitment to education development

Code:

(1) (a), (b)

(2) (a), (b), (c)

(3) (a), (b), (d)

(4) (a), (b), (c), (d)

72. Match List - I with List - II. Select the correct answer from the code given below:

List - I (Policy Model)

List - II (Core Thinker)

(a) Elite/Mass Model

(b) Group Model

(c) Institutional Model

(d) Organized Anarchy Model

(i) Carl J. Friedrich

(ii) Arthur F. Bentley

(iii) C. Wright Mills

(iv) John K. Kingdon

Code:

      (a)  (b) (c) (d)

(1) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)

(2) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)

(3) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)

(4) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)

73. Name the organisation which has facilitated to establish a network of N.G.O.’s for setting up grain banks in Maharashtra.

(1) Food Corporation of India

(2) Amul

(3) Ministry of Agriculture, Govt. of India

(4) Academy of Development Science

74. “Policy is originated, implemented, adjusted, re-implemented, re-adjusted ad-infinitum”.

The statement represents which of the following Model?

(1) The Elite Model

(2) The Group Model

(3) The System Model

(4) The Institutionalist Model

75. The Constitution (97th Amendment) Act deals with which one of the following?

(1) Office of Profit

(2) Constitutional Status to Co-operative Societies

(3) Right to Education of Children (6-14 years age Group)

(4) Provision of Goods and Services Taxes

76 Which of the following policy model is designed to maximize ‘net value achievement’?

(1) Rational

(2) Incremental

(3) Mixed Scanning

(4) Systematic

77. A “Nagar Panchayat” under Article 243 of the Indian Constitution means?

(1) The biggest Gram Panchayat of a district

(2) A Transitional area from rural to an Urban area

(3) A Smaller Urban area

(4) An area of a Panchayat partially coming under a town and partially under a village.

78. Assertion (A): Public Policy is a purposive course of action that an individual or group consistently follows in dealing with a problem.

Reason (R): Policy is an instrument through which society regulates and attempts to channelize human behaviour in acceptable directions.

Code:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

79. Arrange the following in the chronological order:

(a) Royal Commission on Decentralization

(b) Ripon Resolution

(c) Montague’s Declaration

(d) Mayo Resolution

Select the correct answer by using code given below:

(1) (b), (d), (c), (a)

(2) (a), (b), (c), (d)

(3) (b), (c), (a), (d)

(4) (d), (b), (a), (c)

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80. Consider the following characteristics of Institutionalist model of public policy:

(a) It focuses on the organisation chart of government.

(b) It describes the reporting arrangements and duties of bureaus.

(c) It takes into consideration constitutional provisions, administrative and common laws.

(d) The living linkages between bureaus are also considered as important one.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

(1) (a), (b), (c)

(2) (a), (c), (d)

(3) (b), (c), (d)

(4) (a), (b), (c), (d)

81. Who stated that:

“Public Policy is the outcome of the struggle in government over who gets what”?

(1) B. Guy Peters

(2) Eloise F. Malone

(3) Eulan and Prewitt

(4) Clarke E. Cochran et. al

82. Which one of the following states is not covered in first phase under ‘Climate Resilience Building among Farmers through Crop Residue Management’ Project under National Adaptation Fund for Climate Change (NAFCC)?

(1) Himachal Pradesh

(2) Uttar Pradesh

(3) Rajasthan

(4) Haryana

83. Consider the items included in the Eleventh Schedule of the constitution and select the correct answers from the code given below:

(a) Public distribution system

(b) Prevention of Cruelty to animals

(c) Non-conventional energy sources

(d) Libraries

Code:

(1) (a), (b), (c)

(2) (a), (c), (d)

(3) (b), (c), (d)

(4) (a), (b), (c), (d)

84. Which one of the following is not correct regarding Pradhan Mantri Awaas Yojana-Gramin (PMAY-G)?

(1) PMAY-G was launched on 1st January, 2016

(2) Aims at providing a pucca house, with basic amenties to the beneficiary

(3) Specified financial assistance is extended to the beneficiary for constructing a unit

(4) The beneficiary is entitled for 90/95 person days of unskilled labour under MNREGS

85. Which one of the following is not a constraint faced by the administration of cities in India?

(1) Insufficient generation of revenue

(2) Non-fulfilment of Municipal Personal Positions

(3) Reliability of Utility Services

(4) Adequate representation of Women

86. According to the provisions of the constitution a “Metropolitan area” means?

(1) An area having a population of five lakh or more

(2) An area having a population of ten lakh or more

(3) An area having a population of fifteen lakh or more

(4) An area having a population of twenty lakh or more

87. Which one of the following has promised to ‘Ensure healthy lives and promote well being for all at all ages’?

(1) UN Conference on Health for All

(2) Millennium Development Goals (MDGs)

(3) Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs)

(4) Common Future Report

88. Which one of the following is the recommendation of 2nd ARC in its 6th Report (Local Governance) concerning District Rural Development Agency (DRDA)?

(1) DRDA should be discontinued

(2) DRDA should be strengthened with more power

(3) DRDA should be merged with District Committee

(4) DRDA should work under the supervision of State Planning Board

89. ‘Panchayati Raj Institutions should be given a substantial share in the royalty from minerals collected by State Governments’ was recommended by:

(1) 2nd ARC in its 6th Report

(2) 2nd ARC in its 15th Report

(3) NITI Aayog

(4) Department of Investment and Asset Management of Union Ministry of Finance

90. Which one of the following area dominates the Public Private Scenario in India?

(1) Health

(2) Telecom

(3) Power

(4) Roads

91. The constitution of ‘Local Body Ombudsman’ was recommended by which of the following?

(1) First ARC

(2) Second ARC

(3) L.M. Singhvi Committee

(4) NITI Aayog

92. Consider the following statements regarding Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana (PMGSY):

(a) The PMGSY was launched on 25th December, 2000.

(b) The Yojana was 100 percent centrally sponsored scheme.

(c) It intended to provide all weather roads to rural unconnected habitations.

(d) The habitations of more than 500 persons in hilly and desert areas were made eligible for the Yojana.

Select the correct answer by using code given below:

(1) (a), (b), (c)

(2) (a), (c), (d)

(3) (a), (b), (d)

(4) (a), (b), (c), (d)

93. G.V.K. Rao Committee on Panchayati Raj Institutions was appointed in 1985 by:

(1) Ministry of Rural Development

(2) Planning Commission of India

(3) Ministry of Agriculture and Farmer’s Welfare

(4) Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment

94. Match List - I with List - II. Select the correct answer from the code given below:

List - I (Concept)

List - II (Explanation)

(a) Hierarchy

(b) Span of Control

(c) Coordination

(d) Unity of Command

(i) Number of subordinates to be controlled by the superior

(ii) Superior-subordinates relationship in terms of control and communication

(iii) A subordinate should get orders from one immediate boss

(iv) Synchronising the programmes and avoiding duplicacy

Code:

     (a) (b) (c)  (d)

(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(2) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

(3) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)

(4) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)

95. Which one of the following is not a constituent element of British Constitutionalism as per A.V. Dicey?

(1) Parliament Sovereignty

(2) Rule of Law

(3) Judicial Supremacy

(4) Constitutional Conventions

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96. According to Leslie Kish which of the following is/are the basic problem/s of ‘Sampling Frames’?

(a) Missing Elements

(b) Foreign Elements

(c) Duplicate Entries

(d) Groups/Clusters

Select the correct answer by using code given below:

(1) (a) only

(2) (b), (c)

(3) (b), (c), (d)

(4) (a), (b), (c), (d)

97. Which one of the following is not an advantage of the Departmental type of governmental organisation?

(1) It ensures efficiency in administration

(2) It facilitates the standardization of administrative procedures

(3) It re-conciles the line of authority with responsibility

(4) It enjoys autonomy and flexibility in its functioning

98. Which one of the following is the focus of research related with more specific in its subject of focus, and it concentrate on certain particular components or characteristics of an administrative system according to Ferrel Heady?

(1) Modified Traditional

(2) Development Oriented

(3) General system model building

(4) Middle Range Theory Formulation

99. Which one of the following is wrong concerning International Monetary Fund (IMF)?

(1) It was formed at Bretton Woods Conference Primarily by the ideas of Harry Dexter White and John Maynard Keynes.

(2) It works to foster global growth and economic stability

(3) Voting power in the IMF is based on quota system

(4) The Board of Governors of IMF consists of two governors and one alternate Governor for each member country

100. In Union Public Service Commission, ‘X’ was appointed as Chairman on 6th October 2013. The other two members ‘Y’ and ‘Z’ were appointed on 8th November 2012 and 12th December 2017 respectively. If the dates of birth of X, Y, Z were 2nd February 1954, 3rd June 1954 and 6th November 1958 respectively. What will be the chronological order of their retirement from UPSC?

(1) X, Y, Z

(2) X, Z, Y

(3) Y, Z, X

(4) Y, X, Z

Answer Key:-

Q. No.

Answer

Q. No.

Answer

1

3

51

1

2

3

52

3

3

1

53

2

4

3

54

3

5

1

55

4

6

1

56

3

7

4

57

3

8

3

58

2

9

3

59

2

10

3

60

4

11

4

61

4

12

1

62

4

13

2

63

3

14

1

64

3

15

2

65

3

16

1

66

1

17

2

67

1

18

4

68

4

19

4

69

3

20

2

70

3

21

2

71

3

22

2

72

1

23

2

73

4

24

2

74

3

25

3

75

2

26

3

76

1

27

4

77

2

28

2

78

2

29

1

79

4

30

2

80

1

31

2

81

4

32

3

82

1

33

3

83

2

34

4

84

1

35

3

85

4

36

3

86

2

37

4

87

3

38

4

88

1

39

3

89

1

40

1

90

4

41

2

91

2

42

3

92

1

43

4

93

2

44

4

94

2

45

1

95

3

46

2

96

4

47

2

97

4

48

3

98

4

49

4

99

4

50

2

100

4

Practice makes the man perfect! The more you will practice, the more accuracy you will gain which will eventually lead you to a high score in the exam. Practice will help you in avoiding silly mistakes and making unnecessary guess works while attempting NTA UGC NET December 2018 Exam. Therefore, practicing previous year papers will help you in achieving accuracy and high score in NTA UGC NET December 2018 Exam.

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