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UPPCS Main (Written) Exam 2014: General Studies Paper II: Question Paper

The Candidates can get the UPPCS Main (Written) 2014: General Studies Paper II: Question Paper here

Dec 9, 2014 15:20 IST

The Main Examination of Uttar Pradesh Combined State/Upper Subordinate Exam 2014 popularly called as UPPCS Main Exam 2014 commenced from 5 November 2014. The Preliminary of UPPCS 2014 was conducted on 3 August and the result declared on 7 October. The General Studies Paper II contains 150 Questions and the Time limit is 2 Hours.

The UPPCS Main 2014 General Studies Question Paper II is given below.

                                            GENERAL STUDIES Paper –II

Max Time : 2 Hours                                                                         Max Marks: 200 

1. A father tells his son "I was your present age when you were born". If the father is 64 years old now, the age of son after 10 years will be

(a) 42 years

(b) 44 years

(c) 38 years

(d) 50 years

2. A sum of Rs. 6,240 is paid off in 30 installments in such a way that each installment is Rs. 10 more than the previous installment. The first installment would be of

(a) Rs. 36

(b) Rs.63

(c) Rs. 37

(d) Rs.73

3. A and B are poets and students, B and C are athletes and students, D and C are students and businessmen, A and E are social workers, B, C and E are athletes, A, B and D are poets. Who is poet, athlete and student?

(a) A

(b) B

(c) C

(d) D

4. Krishna walks 1 km East of his house, then 1 km North, again 2 km East, 3 km South and 3 km West. To reach his house he must walk

(a) 1 km North

(b) 1 km South

(c) 2 km South

(d) 2 km North

5. The value of Coefficient of co-relation lies between

(a) -1 to +1

(b) -1 to 0

(c) 0 to +1

(d) -∞ to +∞

6. One train starts from place' A 'at 5:00 pm and reaches the place 'B' at 6:00 pm. Another train starts from place 'B' at 5:00 pm and reaches place 'A' at 6:30 pm. The two trains will cross each other at

(a) 5:56 pm

(b) 5:48 Pm

(c) 5:42 pm

(b) 5:36 pm

7. Histogram is drawn with

(a) Equal class-intervals only

(b) Unequal class-intervals only

(c) Both (a) and (b)

(d) Neither (a) nor (b)

8. Percentiles are the value of the variate which divides the total frequency into "K" equal parts. K is equal to

(a) 99

(b) 100

(c) 101

(d) None of the above

9. Quartiles and deciles divide the total frequency in (K1, K2) equal parts. (K1, K2) are

(a) (4, 10)

(b) (3, 9)

(c) (3, 11)

(d) (4, 9)

10. Mode of the following observations 0, 1,6,7,2,3,7,6,6,2,6,0,5,6,0 is:

(a) 3.8

(b) 5

(c) 6

(d) None of the above

11. When the variable is height in centimetres, the unit of the standard deviation is

(a) centimetre

(b) (centimetre)2

(c) (centimetre)-1

(d) None of the above

12. If the standard deviation of a variable X is , then the standard deviation of 4X + 5 is

(a) 4+ 5

(b) +4

(c) -4

(d) +5

13. A fair coin is tossed thrice. The probability of getting atleast two heads is

(a)1/4

(b)3/4

(c)1/2

(d) None of the above

14. The table below gives size of memberships in an organisation:

Year

Y1

Y2

Y3

Y4

Y5

Y6

Y7

No. of members

25

47

54

75

86

94

99

The percentage increase in Y7 compared to Y6 is

(a) 5.01

(b) 4.97

(c) 4.95

(d) 5.32

15. Graphical representation of data can be done by

(a) Histogram only

(b) Ogive only

(c) Frequency polygon only

(d) All of the above

16. In a Tehsil the numbers of people are as follows:

Children          Adults              Old

250                 450                200

The angle substituted at the centre in a pie-diagram, corresponding to children is

(a) 100°

(b) 105°

(c) 97°

(d) 114°

17. If M1 and M2 are the A.M. of two sets of data with N1 and N2 observations respectively and the two sets of data are combined together, then the A.M. of the combined data is

(a) N1 M1 + N2 M2

(b)( N1 M1 + N2 M2 )/(N1 +N2)

(c) M1 + M2

(d) None of the above

18. The median of the following set: 2000, 1180, 1785, 1500, 560, 782, 1200, 385, 1123, 222

(a) 1151.5

(b) 1171.7

(c) 1177.3

(d) 1180.5

19. Consider the series X1, X2, ……..Xn with G.M. G1  and Y1, Y2 ,……. Yn with G.M. G2 and define Zi=Xi/Yi, i=1,2,……….. n, then the G.M. of Z's is

(a) G1,G2

(b) G1/G2

(c) √(G1/G2)

(d) None of the above

20. The two comulative frequency distribution cut each other at the point corresponding to the

(a) Mean

(b) Median

(c) Mode

(d) None of the above

21.If the mean of A, B, C, D and E is 50 and mean of B, C, D and E is 60, then the value of A is

(a) 10

(b) 15

(c) 20

(d) 25

22. The question paper has 10 questions and each question could be answered as True or False. The number of different possible sequences of answers is

(a) 10

(b) 45

(c) 100

(d) 1024

23. The following table gives the import and export (in million dollars) of a country :

Year:                2010    2011    2012    2013

Import:             150      175      170      200

Export:              140      183      170      210

The average trade balance (trade balance = export - import) is

(a) 8/3

(b) 2

(c) -1

(d) 3/2

24. The following table gives the area (in thousand square km) and population (in million) of four cities:

City:                 A          B          C          D

Area:               125      140      180      200

Population:        25        40        60        50

The most densely populated city is

(a) A

(b) B

(c) C

(d) D

25. The following table gives the annual profit of a company (in lakh rupees)

2008-09           2009-10           2010-11           2011-12           2012-13

   590                   620                 656                 690                  726

The period which has maximum percent increase in profit over previous period

(a) 2009-10

(b) 2010-11

(c) 2011-12

(d) 2012-13

26. The following table gives the number of science, arts and commerce students in a group of boys and girls:

             Science            Arts      Commerce      Total

Boys        20               _              15            80

Girls         6                40              _             _

Total         _                 _             20             _

The total number of students in the group is

(a) 127

(b) 131

(c) 138

(d) 144

27. The median of

1, 5, 2, 8, 9, 7, 16 is

(a) 5

(b) 7

(c) 6.5

(d) 8.5

28. The harmonic mean of
0, 2, 4, 6, 8 is

(a) 0

(b) 4

(c)1/4

(d) 4.8

29. The geometric mean of the numbers

1, 2, 4, 8, 16 is

(a) 0

(b) 4

(c) 6

(d) 8

30. The following graph shows number of engineers by 2, number of labourers by 7 and number of administrators by 5 in a company. If total number of administrators is 50, then number of labourers is

(a) 150

(b) 100

(c) 175

(d) 200

31. 10% of students taking admission in a course drop out before completing their course and among those drop outs 30% are girls. If total number of students taking admission in the college is 200 and among them 50 are girls, then number of girls who completed the course is

(a) 44

(b) 42

(c) 40

(d) 36

32. In a sample of 5000 customers collected in a marketing survey, 40% use only Brand A of a product, 25% use both Brands A and B of the product and remaining customers use only Brand B of the product. The number of people who do not use Brand B of the product is

(a) 1250

(b) 1500

(c) 1600

(d) 2000

33. A pie-chart represents profit of the companies A, B and C. If total profit of three companies is 720 lakh and angle of pie-chart corresponding to company A is 120°, then profit of A (in lakh) is

(a) 120

(b) 240

(c) 320

(d) 360

34.The average weight of a group of two males A, B and two females C and D is 65 kg. If average weight of two males is 70 kg and weight of D is 58 kg, then weight of C is

(a) 58 kg

(b) 60 kg

(c) 62 kg

(d) 65 kg

35. The marks obtained by six students in a test are 12, 25, 18, 18, 20, 22. The number of students whose marks are more than the average marks is

(a) 1

(b) 2

(c) 3

(d) 4

36. The monthly incomes of six employees of a company in rupees are 15,000, 17,500, 17,500, 18,000, 28,000, and 30,000. The number of employees having income more than the mode and less than the mean incomes is

(a) 0

(b) 1

(c) 2

(d) 3

37. Rastrapati Bhavan was designed by

(a) Edward Stone

(b) Le Corbusier

(c) Edwin Lutyens

(d) Tarun Dutt

38. The concept of Concurrent List in Indian Constitution was borrowed from

(a) Canada

(b) Australia

(c) U.S.A

(d) Great Britain

39. Who among the following is the legal advisor of a State Government?

(a) Attorney General

(b) Advocate General

(c) Solicitor General

(d) Comptroller and Auditor General

40. How many types of emergencies have been invisaged under the Indian Constitution?

(a) Two

(b) Four

(c) Three

(d) One

41. To whom does the Speaker of the Lok Sabha address to resign from the office?

(a) The President

(b) The Prime Minister

(c) The Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha

(d) The Chief Justice of India

42. Which one of the following Amendments of the Constitution is related to the Lowering of the age of voters ?

(a) 61st Amendment

(b) 44th Amendment

(c) 42nd Amendment

(d) 24th Amendment

43. Curative Petition in India can be filed in Supreme Court under Article

(a) 138

(b) 140

(c) 142

(d) 146

44. Among the following schedules of the Indian Constitution, which schedule gives the name and the area of the state?

(a) First Schedule

(b) Second Schedule

(c) Third Schedule

(d) Fourth Schedule

45. In which Article of Indian Constitution Doctrine of Due Process of Law is included?

(a) 11

(b) 16

(c) 21

(d) 26

46. How many constitutional Amendments in India have been implemented up to 2013 ?

(a) 68

(b) 78

(c) 88

(d) 98

47. If in India the office of President and Vice-President fall vacant at one point of time the' office of President will temporarily be held by

(a) The Prime Minister

(b) The Chief Justice of Supreme Court

( c) The Chief of Armed Forces

(d) None of the above

48. Indian Model of Ombudesman is

(a) Lekhpal

(b) Tehsildar

(c) Governor

(d) Lokpal

49. Who renders oath of secrecy of power to the Governor?

(a) The President

(b) The Vice-President

(c) Chief Justice of High Court of State

(d) The Speaker of Legislative Assembly

50. The word ‘Hindu' in Article 25 of the Constitution of India does not include

(a) Buddhist

(b) Jains

(c) Sikhs

(d) Parsees

51. Which of the following is not a Fundamental Right?

(a) Right against Exploitation

(b) Equal pay for equal work

(c) Equality before law

(d) Right to freedom of Religion

52. What is the maximum no. of members in State's Legislative Assembly of India?

(a) 400

(b) 450

(c) 500

(d) 550

53. The 44th Amendment In the Constitution of India removed the following right from the category of Fundamental Rights:

(a) Freedom of Speech

(b) Constitutional Remedies

(c) Property

(d) Freedom of Religion

54. How many Fundamental Duties are in the Indian Constitution?

(a) Nine

(b) Eleven

(c) Twelve

(d) Twenty

55. Which of the following options is not correct? Public Finance Studies financial activities of the Government. Its activities include

(a) Analysis of Public Expenditure

(b) Public Revenue

(c) Financial Administration

(d) Functioning of Commercial Bank

56. Which one of the following is NOT provided in part IV A (Fundamental Duties) of the Indian Constitution?

(a) To respect the National Flag.

(b) To promote the spirit of brotherhood amongst all people of India.

( c) To respect our parents and teachers.

(d) To preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture.

57. Uttarakhand State was created in

(a) the year 1999

(b) the year 2000

(c) the year 2001

(d) the year 2002

58. Which one of the following is correct? Union Public Service Commission is

(a) A Regulatory organization.

(b) A Legal organization.

(c) Established by Parliamentary ordinance.

(d) a Constitutional organization.

59. There is one and the same Constitution for all the Indian states and the centre. However there is exception in the case of one state. That state is

(a) Andhra Pradesh

(b) Jammu-Kashmir

(c) Tamil Nadu

(d) Kerala

60. Which of the following is correct? The main feature of a Presidential form of Government is/are

(a) The Head of the Executive is the President.

(b) The President appoints his council of Ministers.

(c) The President cannot dissolve the Legislature.

(d) All of the above.

61. The concept of Human Rights primarily emphasises on

(a) Right to property

(b) Right to equality

(c) Right to religion

(d) Dignity of man as a human being

62. Which bill was withdrawn from the Parliament (Indian) at the eleventh hour in 2013-14?

(a) Bill related to Right to Information.

(b) Bill relatedto tainted Legislators.

(c) Food Security Bill.

(d) None of the above.

63. Who among the following was the first Governor-General of free India?

(a) Lord Mountbatten

(b) Sir Stafford Cripps

(c) C. Rajgopalachari

(d) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

64. In 2003 OBC status for Gurkhas was given in

(a) Uttar Pradesh

(b) Andhra Pradesh

(c) Maharashtra

(d) Uttarakhand

65. The Indian Foreign Policy of Non- Alignment was initiated by

(a) Jawaharlal Nehru

(b) Mrs. Indira Gandhi

(c) Lal Bahadur Shastri

(d) Morarji Desai

66. Among the following Presidents of India, who is known as the Philosopher King or the Philosopher Ruler?

(a) Dr. Radha Krishnan

(b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

(c) Dr. Zakir Hussain

(d) Dr. Abdul Kalam

67. As on March 2014, no. of companies BSE Greenex Index includes was

(a) 100

(b) 75

(c) 50

(d) 25

68. According to Freedom of States of India Report 2013, the State which tops the rank is

(a) Maharashtra

(b) Andhra Pradesh

(c) Gujarat

(d) Haryana

69. In India the State which produces the largest amount of Rubber (2013) was

(a) Uttrakhand

(b) Tamil Nadu

(c) Karnataka

(d) Kerala

70. The economic growth of India in financial year 2013-14 was approximately

(a) 8%

(b) 7%

(c) 6%

(d) 5%

71. The document of Twelfth Five Year Plan suggests that the largest expenditure in this plan would be on

(a) Financial Services

(b) Social Services

(c) Agriculture

(d) Fisheries and Forestry

72. PURA (Providing Urban Amenities in Rural Areas) an ambitious programme on Rural Development was introduced by

(a) A.P.J. Abdul Kalam

(b) Manmohan Singh

(c) M.S. Swaminathan

(d) Atal Bihari Vajpayee

73. Which of the following Private Bank for the first time did set up its branch in China?

(a) IClCI Bank

(b) HDFC Bank

(c) AXIS Bank

(d) Samadhan Bank

74. The Oil and Natural Gas Commission (ONGC) was set up in

(a) 1956

(b) 1957

(c) 1959

(d) 1961

75. Excise Duty on liquor is imposed by

(a) Central Government

(b) State Governments

(c) Nagar Nigams

(d) District Boards

76. The Railway Budget 2013-14 has approved to introduce a new hyper luxury class. It is to be called

(a) Udaan

(b) Anand

(c) Apoorva

(d) Anubhuti

77. Which of the following programme is not an Employment Generation and Poverty Alleviation of Government of India?

(a) MGNREGA

(b) NRLM (National Rural Livelihoods Mission)

(c) SJSRY (Swarn Jayanti Shaheri Rozgar Yojna)

(d) NSSF (National Social Security Fund)

78. The first 3D theatre of India has been set up at which of the following international airport?

(a) Raja Bhoj Airport, Bhopal.

(b) Rajeev Gandhi Airport, Hyderabad.

(c) Indira Gandhi Airport, New Delhi.

(d) Chhatrapati Shivaji Airport, Mumbai.

79. Indira Gandhi National University for women is going to be set up as a Central University at

(a) Jaipur

(b) Bhopal

(c) Kolkata

(d) Raebareli

80. Where are diamond mines in India?

(a) Karnataka

(b) Uttar Pradesh

(c) Madhya Pradesh

(d) Tamil Nadu

81. RBI has cleared the resolution to start Payment Banks in India for improving Financial inclusion. Following committee had recommended the creation of Payment Banks.

(a) Arvind Mayaram

(b) Y.V. Reddy

(c) Bimal Jalan

(d) Nachiket More

82. The share of Road Transport in total transport of India is

(a) 100%

(b) 80%

(c) 60%

(d) 40%

83. Which one of the following is not responsible for unemployment?

(a) Rapid growth of population.

(b) Lack of skill.

(c) Growth of per capital income.

(d) Lack of manpower planning.

84. Which of the following groups is not co-partner of Industrial Relation?

(a) Consumer and their organisations,

(b) Workers and their organisations.

(c) Managers and their organisations.

(d) State Govemments and Central Govemment.

85. In relation to Agricultural Finance and Refinance which institution is the biggest?

(a) Regional Rural Banks

(b) NABARD

(c) Central Cooperative Bank

(d) Land Development Bank

86. Which plan among the following declared its objective of self-reliance and zero net foreign aid?

(a) Second Five Year Plan

(b) Third Five Year Plan

(c) Fourth Five Year Plan

(d) Fifth Five Year Plan

87. Who decides whether a bill is Money Bill or not?

(a) President

(b) Minister of Parliamentary Affairs

(c) Chairman of Rajya Sabha

(d) Speaker of Lok Sabha

88. Which one of the following is not a Pre Paid Payment instrument?

(a) Delhi Metro Rail Card

(b) Electronic Wallet

(c) Credit Card of a Nationalised Bank

(d) Airtel Money

89. Planning Commission of India is a

(a) Political body

(b) Non-Political body

(c) Quasi-Political body

(d) Statutory body

90. The share of services in Indias G.D.P and total unemployment in 2012-13 respectively are approximately

(a) 50% and 20%

(b) 57% and 28%

(c) 64% and 34%

(d) 55% and 45%

91. Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

List-I

A.First Five Year Plan

B.Third Five Year Plan

C.Fourth Five Year Plan

D.Sixth Five Year plan

  List -II

1. 1980-85

2. 1951-56

3. 1961-66

4. 1969-74

Codes:

      A       B          C          D

(a) 1        2          3           4

(b) 2        3          4           1

(c) 2        3          1           4

(d) 1        4          2           3

92. According to Census 2011 in which of the following districts of U.P. the no. of people living in Rural Areas are maximum?

(a) Allahabad

(c) Hamirpur

(b) Varanasi

(d) Unnao

93. Which among the following states became the first state to observe Child Protection Day on March 3, 2014 '?

(a) Assam

(b) Sikkirn

(c) Bihar

(d) Gujarat

94. Which one of the following countries is the most restructure country according to FDI Restructureness Index (FRI) in 2012?

(a) China

(b) India

(c) Pakistan

(d) Iran

95. Recently Govemment of India has approved the proposal of providing loans to Women Self Health Groups (SHG) at a lower interest rate to eradicate poverty through women empowerment. The interest rate is

(a) 7.00%

(b) 7.50%

(c) 8.00%

(d) 8.50%

96. In India which one of the following collects and publishes the unemployment Index?

(a) Planning Commission

(b) Finance Commission

(c) N.S.S.O.

(d) U.N.O.

97. In medical terminology 'Golden Hour' is related with

(a) Terminal stage of cancer

(b) Pregnancy is detected

(c) Heart Attack

(d) Actual Child Birth

98. E.E.G. is done to record the working of

(a) Heart

(b) Lungs

(c) Brain

(d) Kidney

99. Beta-blocker IS a medicine to save from

(a) Heart attack

(b) Enlargment of Prostate gland

(c) Chronic diabetes

(d) None of the above

100. Oral submucos fibrosis is a disease caused by

(a) Drinking Liquor

(b) Smoking Tobbacco

(c) Consuming Gutka of Tobbacco

(d) Consuming Red Meat

101. 'SANRAKSHA' is

(a) Maleria Research and Control Project (Bengaluru)

(b) AIDS Research and Control Project (Bengaluru)

(c) T.B. Research and Control Project (New Delhi)

(d) None of these

102. BMD Test is performed for

(a) Arthritis

(b) Osteoporosis

(c) Osteomalacia

(d) None of these

103. Apples have special value for heart-patients, because they are rich source of

(a) Sodium and Potassium

(b) Phosphorus and Magnesium

(c) Potassium and Phosphorus

(d) Potassium only

104. EBOLA is a

(a) Terrorist Organization

(b) Deadly virus

(c) AIDS Test

(d) None of these

105. Diseases of inner parts of the human body are diagnosed through

(a) Cardiograph

(b) Endoscope

(c) Gyroscope

(d) Crestograph

106. Phonometer is used to measure which one of the following?

(a) The power of brightness oflight

(b) Extremely high temperature

(c) Frequency of electromagnetic wave

(d) Atmospheric humidity

107. Which one of the following devices is used to cool the engine of the vehicles?

(a) Polygraph

(b) Turbine

(c) Radiator

(d) Quadrant

108. Machine Gun was invented by

(a) Beared

(b) G. Brousa

(c) Karl Benz

(d) James Pakal

109. The principle of thermal ionisation is an outstanding contribution of

(a) H.J. Bhabha

(b) M.N. Saha

(c) C.V. Raman

(d) J.C. Bose

110. Rocket works on the principle of the following:

(a) Avogadro's concept

(b) Energy conservation

(c) Momentum conservation

(d) Bernoulli's theorem

111. The inside pressure of the soap bubble is

(a) Equal to the atmospheric pressure.

(b) More than the atmospheric pressure

(c) Less than the atmospheric pressure

(d) None of the above.

112. The most abundantly found organic compound in the nature is

(a) Glucose

(b) Fructose

(c) Sucrose

(d) Cellulose

113. Which one of the following is the best conductor of heat?

(a) Water

(b) Mercury

(c) Benzene

(d) Leather

114. Mirage formation is an example of

(a) Refraction

(b) Dispersion

(c) Total internal reflection

(d) Diffraction

115. Which one of the following devices is used to measure the intensity of earthquake?

(a) Seismograph

(b) Stethoscope

(c) Comograph

(d) Periscope

116. The colour of the light is fixed by its

(a) Velocity

(b) Amplitude

(c) Frequency

(d) Wavelength

117. Which one of the following can not be used as a nuclear fuel?

(a) Uranium

(b) Thorium

(c) Calcium

(d) Plutonium

118. Goldsmiths use aquaregia which is prepared by mixing

(a) Nitric acid and sulphuric acid

(b) Nitric acid and hydrochloric acid

(c) Sulphuric acid and hydrochloric acid

(d) Citric acid and benzoic acid

119. Commonest side effect of Cu-T:

(a) Bleeding

(b) Pain

(c) Perforation

(d) Pelvic intlammatory disease

120. The most abundant element found in the human body is

(a) Iron

(b) Sodium

(c) Oxygen

(d) Iodine

121. The amount of carbon is highest in

(a) Pig iron

(b) Wrought iron

(c) Steel

(d) Alloy steel

122. Which one of the following metals is liquid at ordinary temperature?

(a) Lead

(b) Nickel

(c) Mercury

(d) Tin

123. Which one of the following is called 'dry ice'?

(a) Dehydrated ice

(b) Solid hydrogen peroxide

(c) Solid water

(d) Solid carbon dioxide

124. The gases employed for respiratory activities of divers are

(a) oxygen and nitrogen

(b) oxygen and helium

(c) oxygen and argon

(d) oxygen and neon

125. The study of ageing is known as

(a) Gerontology

(b) Ethnology

(c) Anthropology

(d) Thanatology

126. Which one of the following polymers is used in making bullet-proof vests?

(a) Bakelite

(b) Polyamides

(c) Teflon

(d) Polyurethanes

 

128. If the length of a rectangle is increased by 20% and its width is decreased by 20%, the area will be

(a) Increased by 4%

(b) Decreased by 4%

(c) Increased by 20%

(d) None of the above

129. If A:B = 5:7 and B:C = 9:11, then A:C is

(a) 45 : 77

(b) 49 : 99

(c) 63 : 55

(d) None of the above

130. Let 54 is to be divided into two parts, so that 10 times the first and 22 times the second together are equal to 780. Then the first part is

(a) 30

(b) 32

(c) 34

(d) 39

131. If P is the principal amount, r is the rate of interest per annum and n is the
number of years, then the compound interest is P(X-1), where X is

 

 

132. Which of the following numbers would fit in the series given below?

3, 14, 25, 36, 47, ……..

(a) 1111

(b) 1112

(c) 1113

(d) 1114

133. The average of 7 numbers is 25. The average of first three of them is 20, while the average of last three is 28. The remaining number is

(a) 21

(b) 35

(c) 31

(d) 39

134. Which of the following represents the average of five consecutive even numbers a, b, c, d and e?

 

 

135. A square is converted into a rectangle by increasing its length by 20% and decreasing its breadth by 20%, which of the following statement is true?

(a) Area of rectangle = 96% area of square

(b) Area of rectangle = Area of square

(c) Area of square = 96% of area of rectangle

(d) Area of rectangle = 80% area of square

136. 15 persons can fill 35 boxes in 7 days. How many persons are required to fill 65 boxes in 5 days?

(a) 39

(b) 49

(c) 33

(d) 36

137. A two digit no. is such that the product of its digits is 12. When 36 is added to this no. the digits interchange their place. The unit (first) digit would be

(a) 2

(b) 6

(c) 4

(d) 3

138. If PERFECT is coded as RGUIHFW, then BROWN in that code is written as

(a) CSQYP

(b) DSRZQ

(c) CTRYQ

(d) DTRZQ

139. Which should come in place of the question mark in the following series?
B2E, D5H, F12K, H27N,?

(a) I58Q

(b) I57Q

(c) J58Q

(d) J58P

140. If P denotes '+', R denotes 'x', S denotes '-' and T denotes '÷', then the value of

5 R 9 P 7 S 9 T 3 P 6 is

(a) 54

(b) 55

(c) 60

(d) 59

141. In the following number series, a wrong number is given:
3, 5, 13, 49, 241, 1445, 10081

The number is

(a) 1445

(b) 241

(c) 49

(d) 13

142. AZB: CXD:: EVF:?

(a) HSR

(b) GTH

(c) GHT

(d) RIS

143. Mr. A meets Mrs. B. B is the mother of a son C and a daughter D. E is mother
of A. C is married and has one son, E is the daughter-in-law of B. How is A related to B?

(a) Uncle

(b) Grandson

(c) Son

(d) Nephew

144. Choose odd one from the following:

(a) ADBC

(b) DGEF

(c) GJHI

(d) KMLN

145. If I walk at 3 Km/h, I miss the train by 2 minutes. However, if I walk at 4 km/h I reach the station 2 minutes before the departure of train. The distance of station from my house is

 

 

146. A dealer sold two radio sets for Rs. 396 each, gaining 10% on one and losing 10% on the other. Which of the following statement is true?

(a) He loses 1%

(b) He neither gains nor loses

(c) He gains 1%

(d) He loses 8%

 

 

(a) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), (v)

(b) (ii), (iii), (v), (iv), (i)

(c) (iii), (ii), (i), (v), (iv)

(d) (iv), (v), (iii), (ii), (i)

(a) x + y + Z = 180

(b) y = x + Z

(c) x = y + z

(d) z = x + y

149. If a triangle of base 7 cm is equal in area to a circle of radius 7 cm, the altitude of the triangle in cm is

(a)7∏

(b) 7

(c)14∏

(d) 14

150. The missing number in the following table:

2

3

5

17

12

8

23

?

38

is

(a) 30

(b) 25

(c) 27

(d) 32