UPPCS, the Combined Upper Subordinate Exam of UPPSC is one of the coveted Exams of the state Uttar Pradesh. To know the importance of Previous Year Question Papers of UPPCS Mains Exam is a necessary thing for the UPPCS aspirants of any Exam because the Previous Year Question Papers gives an insight of the Pattern of asking questions. Likewise we use to provide Previous Year Question Papers of UPSC IAS and other State PCS Exams.
If the aspirants have concrete idea of the pattern of asking Questions then they can prepare the respective papers according to that pattern and hence they have greater chance of getting maximum marks. For the convenience of UPPCS aspirants, here we are providing the Previous Year Question Paper of General Studies II of UPPCS Mains Examinations 2007.
GENERAL STUDIES (SECOND PAPER) – 2007
[M.M. 150, Time 2 hours]
1. Teflon is a polymer containing
(a) Chlorine (b) Carbon
(c) Sodium (d) Fluorine
2. BOD is used as a standard measure for
(a) oxygen level in a forest system
(b) oxygen level in animals
(c) oxygen level in a water system
(d) oxygen level in blend
3. The 'blue moon' phenomenon occurs when
(a) Two full moons occur in the same month.
(b) Four full moons appear in two consecutive months of the same calendar year.
(c) Two full moons appear in the same month thrice in a calendar
(d) None of the above
4. Which is not the Green house gas among the following ?
(a) Carbon dioxide (b) Sulphur dioxide
(c) Methane (d) All the above
5. Which one of the following is another name of RDX?
(a) Cyanohydrin (b) Dextran
(c) Cyclonite (d) Cyclohexane
6. The whistle sound of an approaching train increases where as that of a receding train decreases. This phenomenon is an example of
(a) Raman effect (b) Joule-Thomson effect
(c) Compton effect (d) Doppler effect
7. Astronauts in space cannot stand erect this is because in space
(a) there is no gravity
(b) viscous forces of the atmosphere are very strong
(c) solar wind exert an upward force
(d) atmospheric pressure is very low
8. To hear a clear echo, the minimum distance between the reflecting surface and the observer should be
(a) 165 feet (b) 165 metre
(c) 16.5 feet (d) 16.5 metre
9. Bull semen for the purpose of artificial insemination is stored in
(a) ice (b) liquid oxygen
(c) liquid nitrogen (d) liquid carbon dioxide
10. Sleeping sickness happens due to
(a) deficiency of Vitamin-A
(b) deficiency of calcium in body
(c) rising of Blood Pressure
(d) mono cell animal named Trypanosoma
11. Which Indian scientist is recognised by 'UNEP' as Father of Economic Ecology ?
(a) B. P. Pal (b) Yash Pal
(c) M. S. Swaminathan (d) R. Mishra
12. Iodine is administered to patients suffering from
(a) Rheumatism (b) Night blindness
(c) Rickets (d) Goitre
13. The element not present in fertilisers is
(a) Nitrogen (b) Hydrogen
(c) Chlorine (d) Phosphorus
14. The gas used in the manufacture of Vanaspati from vegetable oil is
(a) Oxygen (b) Nitrogen
(c) Hydrogen (d) Carbon dioxide
16. A train covers a distance between two stations A and B in 45 minutes. If the speed of the train is reduced by 5 km/hour, then it covers the distance in 48 minutes. The distance between the stations A and B is
(a) 55km (b) 60 km
(c) 64 km (d) 80 km
17. A student was asked to divide the half of a certain number by 6 and the other half by 4 and then to add the two quantities so obtained. Instead of doing so the student divided the number by 5 and the result fell short by 4. The given number was
(a) 240 (b) 288
(c) 384 (d) 480
20. Two trains of 200 meters and 150 meters long are running on parallel rails in the same direction at a speed of 40 km/hour and 45 km/hour respectively. Time taken by the faster train to cross the slower train will be
(a) 72 seconds (b) 132 seconds
(c) 192 seconds (d) 252 seconds
21. Let a shopkeeper use a code OL1SPAH = 28 where O = Re 1, L = Rs. 2,1 = Rs. 3 and so on. What price does SOAP denote ?
(a) Rs. 9 (b) Rs. 12
(c) Rs. i6 (d) Rs 18
22. The two cars X and Y start from places A and B respectively which are 700 km apart at 9 a.m. Both the cars run at an average speed of 60 km/hour. Car X stops at 10 a.m. and again starts at 11 a.m. while the other car Y continues to run without stopping. The two cars cross each other at
(a) 2:40 p.m. (b) 3:20 p.m.
(c) 4:10 p.m. (d) 4:20 p.m.
23. A person stands at a middle point of a wooden ladder which starts slipping between a vertical wall and a floor of a room, while continuing to remain in a vertical plane. The path traced by the person standing at the middle point of the slipping ladder is
(a) a straight line (b) an elliptical path
(c) a circular path (d) a parabolic path
24. A sum of money, at simple interest is doubled in20 years. How many years will it take to treble ?
(a) 30 years (b) 38 years
(c) 41 years (d) 40 years
25. The smallest 4 digit number exactly divisible by 7 is
(a) 1101 (b) 1108
(c) 1001 (d) 1007
26. Find the missing number replacing the question-mark (?) in the following series :
4,8,9,27,16,64, ?, 125
(a) 100 (b) 25
(c) 35 (d) 32
28. A 50 meters long train passes over a bridge at the speed of 30 kms per hour. If it takes 36 seconds to cross the bridge, what is the length of the bridge ?
(a) 200 meters (b) 250 meters
(c) 300 meters (d) 350 meters
29. Two sides of a rectangle are measured. One of the sides (length) was measured 10% more than its actual length and the other side (width) was measured 5% less than its actual length. The %error in measure obtained for the area of the rectangle is
(a) 15% (b) 7.5%
(c) 4.5% (d) 5%
30. Introducing a girl, Vipin said, "Her mother is the only daughter of my mother in-law." How is V if in related to the girl ?
(a) Uncle (b) Father
(c) Husband (d) Brother
31. A can complete a certain work in 4 minutes, B in 5minutes; C in 6 minutes: D in 10 minutes; and E in 12 minutes. The average number of units of work completed by then per minute will be
(a) 0.16 (b) 0.40
(c) 0.80 (d) None of these
32. In an examination, 42% candidates failed in Mathematics and 52% failed in English, 17%failed in both the subjects. If 46 candidates passed in both subjects, the total number of candidates is
(a) 100 (b) 200
(c) 300 (d) 350
33. Akash ranks 7'" from the top and 28'" from the bottom in a class. How many students are there in that class ?
(a) 34 (b) 35
(c) 36 (d) 37
34. Find a number such that the difference between nine times the number and 4 times the number is 65.
(a) 10 (b) 13
(c) 11 (d) 12
35. In what proportion must a grocer mix tea priced respectively at Rs. 320 per kg and Rs. 560 per kg to make a mixture worth Rs. 480 per kg ?
(a) 0.33 (b) 0.66
(c) 0.75 (d) 0.50
36. When 24 is added to 40% of a number, the result is the number itself. The number is
(a) 64 (b) 40
(c) 24 (d) 16
37. if PRINT' is coded as 'RUMSZ' then the code for 'DRINK' will be
(a) FVMSQ (b) FUSMQ
(c) FUMSQ (d) FUNQS
38. A train travelling with constant speed crosses 90metre long platform in 12 seconds and 120 metre long platform in 15 seconds. The length of the train and its speed are
(a) 30 meter, 36 km/hr (b) 45 meter, 36 km/hr.
(c) 45 meter, 54km/hr (d) 60 meter, 54 km/hr.
39. The following five three-digit-numbers are given as 234, 452, 346, 762, 893
If the positions of the first and the second digits in each of the above numbers are interchanged, which of the following will be the difference between the middle digits of the highest and the lowest of the five numbers ?
(a) 3 (b) 5
(c) 6 (d) 7
40. A fruit seller professes to sell his fruits at cost price, but still gains 25% on his outlay). What weight doe she substitute for a kilogram ?
(a) 800 gin (b) 850 gm
(c) 890gm (d) 900 gm
41. If 2028 is the product of two natural number shaving two digits each and 13 is their highest common factor, then the numbers are
(a) 26, 78 (b) 13, 156
(c) 36, 68 (d) 39,52
42. Find the wrong number in the series : 3, 8, 15, 24, 34, 48, 63
(a) 15 (b) 24
(c) 34 (d) 48
43. In acetain code MAIN is written as IMNA and REAL is written as ARLE. How is LION written in that code ?
(a) 1LON (b) NIOL
(c) OLNI (d) OINL
44. There are 4 poles in a row A, B, C and D. A is longer than C, B is smaller than D and C is longer than D. Which is the smallest pole ?
(a) B (b) A
(c) D (d) C
45. Find out that number whose square and square root are both even numbers but the square does not exceed 3 digits
(a) 8 (b) 16
(c) 36 (d) 34
46. Radha is younger to Sunita but elder to Rita. Ritais elder to Geeta. Shyam is elder to Rita but younger to Radha. Who is the youngest ?
(a) Geeta (b) Rita
(c) Sunita (d) Shyam
47. The missing numbers and letters in D 4 W - G - T20I-R18-10Q- are respectively given by one of the alternatives : %
(a) 26, 8, 9, P, 18 (b) 22,7, 9, K. 17
(c) 23, 7, 9, J, 17 (d) 20, 6, 5, P, 18
48. A solid cube just gets completely immersed in water when a 0.2 kg mass is placed on it. If the mass is removed, the cube is 2 cm above the water level. What is the length of each side of the cube ?
(a) 12 cm (b) 10 cm
(c) 8 cm (d) 6 cm
49. Four years ago, the average age of a family of four persons was 18 years. During this period, a baby was born. Today if the average age of the family is still 18 years, the age of the baby is
(a) 3.0 years (b) 2.5 years
(c) 2.0 years (d) 1.2 years
50. Five digit numbers are formed using the digits 1,2,3,4 and 5 (no digit is repeated). The number of numbers divisible by 4 will be
(a) 24 (b) 20
(c) 16 (d) 12
52. The mean of 5 observations is 60, the mean of 10observations is 30, and the mean of 15 observations is 20, the mean of all the 30 observations is
(a) 40 (b) 30
(c) 25 (d) 20
53. We wish to present the data through graph or diagram related to number of unemployed persons according to specified age group and sex. The best way of representation will be by a
(a) line diagram (b) pie chart
(c) multiple bar chart (d) divide bar chart
54. The graphs and diagrams
(a) can represent unlimited data
(b) give a quick picture of the situation
(c) show exact value
(d) take less time to prepare
55. If the average of five numbers in 10, the number, which should be added to make the average 12 is
(a) 12 (b) 18
(c) 22 (d) 24
56. In an area, of the total people 40% were women and 45% coffee drinkers. One-third of the males are coffee drinkers. Suppose the total number of persons in the area is 100, then the number of fen e non-coffee drinkers is
(a) 15 (b) 20
(c) 25 (d) None of the above
58. An aeroplane flies from place A to place B at the speed of 500 kms/hour. On the return journey, its speed is 700 kms per hour. The average speed of the aeroplane for the entire journey is
(a) 566-kms/hour (b) 583- kms/hour
(c) 600kms/hour (d) 583- kms/hour
60. A Histogram is drawn for a frequency distribution where the class interval is unequal. The length of the rectangles will be proportional to
(a) frequencies of the classes
(b) frequency density of the class
(c) class interval of the class
(d) none of these
61. The Arithmetic Mean of first eleven natural numbers is
(a) 5.0 (b) 5.5
(c) 6.0 (d) 6.5
62. In a certain factory there are five workers A, B, C, D and E. A can complete a work in 4 minutes, B in 5 minutes, C in 6 minutes, D in 10 minutes and E in 12 minutes. The average number of units of work completed per worker per minute will be
(a) 0.1625 (b) 0.16
(c) 0.18 (d) .20
63. The median of 3, X, 10 and 4 is 5. The value of X will be
(a) 6 (b) 7
(c) 8 (d) none of these
64. With the help of histogram, one can draw
(a) frequency polygon (b) frequency curve
(c) none of (a) or (b) (d) both (a) and (b)
65. A histogram can be drawn for the distribution with unequal classes by considering bar height proportional to
(a) frequencies of the classes (b) class intervals
(c) frequency densities (d) none of the above
66. The average marks of eleven students is 31.0 and that of the first six students is 31.5 while that of the last six students is 30.5. The mark of the sixth student is
(a) 30.5 (b) 31.5
(c) 31.0 (d) 30.0
67. For a moderately skewed distribution, the true relationship is
(a) Mode-Mean = 3 (Mean-Median)
(b) Mena-Mode = 3 (Mean-Median)
(c) Median-Mean = 3 (Mode-Mean)
(d) None of the above
69. The area of a frequency polygon is equal to
(a) the are a of the histogram
(b) the are a between the cumulative frequency polygon (more than) and the axis of X
(c) The are a bounded by the cumulative frequency polygon (less than) axis of X and ordinate corresponding to the upper limit of the last class
(d) All of these
71. The range and quartile deviation of the following observations
29, 20, 30, 25, 39, 35, 48, 41, 60, 51, 70 are
(a) 50, II (b) 41, 22
(c) 50, 22 (d) 41, 11
72. Consider the following diagram :
Given further that the total value in all the sectors is Rs. 128.3 lac, then the present amount for D is
(a) 1.5% (b) 0.05%
(c) 0.5% (d) 5.0%
73. The Arithmetic Mean of 15 numbers is 41.4. Then the sum of these numbers is
(a) 414 (b) 420
(c) 621 (d) 620
74. After delimitation the largest Lok Sabha Constituency in terms of number of voters in U.P. is
(a) Amethi (b) Unnao
(c) Lucknow (d) Baghpat
75. With reference to the Constitution of India, which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(a) Forest : Concurrent list
(b) Stock Exchange : Concurrent list
(c) Post Office Saving : Union List Bank
(d) Public Health : State List
76. According to the National Human Right Commission Act, 1993 who amongst the following can be its Chairman ?
(a) Any Serving Judge of the Supreme Court
(b) Any Serving Judge of the High Court
(c) Only a retired Chief Justice of India
(d) Only a retired Chief Justice of a High Court
77. Which one of the following Bills must be passed by each House of the Indian Parliament separately by special majority ?
(a) Ordinary Bill
(b) Money Bill
(c) Finance Bill
(d) Constitution Amendment Bill
78. What could be the maximum time limit of "Zero Hour" in the Lok Sabha?
(a) 30 minutes (b) One hour
(c) Indefinite period (d) Two hours
79. Which one of the following cannot be dissolved but can be abolished ?
(a) Lok Sabha
(b) Rajya Sabha
(c) State Legislative Assemblies
(d) State Legislative Councils
80. The nomenclature of the Executive Head of the Government of Jammu and Kashmir was changed From Sadar-i-Riyasat to Governor in 1965 by
(a) Lok Sabha Resolution
(b) the Executive Order of the President
(c) the 6lh Amendment in the State Constitution of J&K.
(d) the State Government under Article 371.
81. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists :
A. Fundamental Duties 1. Minerva Mills Case
B. Parliament can amend Fundamental Rights 2. Article 23 of the Constitution
C. Doctrine of Basic Features 3. 42nd Amendment of the Constitution
D. Prohibition of traffic in Human beings 4. Keshvanand Bharti case
A B C D
(a) 3 4 1 2
(b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 2 1 4 3
(d) 1 2 3 4
82. Which of the following High Courts has the largest number of Benches ?
(a) Kolkata High Court
(b) Madhya Pradesh High Court
(c) Bombay High Court
(d) Guwahati High Court
83. The minimum age limit for casting vote in Lok Sabha and State Vidhan Sabha elections was lowered down from 21 years to 18 years by
(a) 44th Amendment of the Constitution
(b) 52nd Amendment of the Constitution
(c) 61st Amendment of the Constitution
(d) 72nd Amendment of the Constitution
84. "He represents the nation but does not lead the nation"- This dictum applies on whom of the following?
(a) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Chief Justice of India
85. How much time the Constituent Assembly took to frame the Constitution of India?
(a) 2 years 11 months 18 days
(b) 2 years 7 months 23 days
(c) 3 years 4 months 14 days
(d) 3 years 11 months 5 days
86. Procedure for creation of Legislative Council in States has been described in which Article of the Constitution ?
(a) Article 368 (b) Article 69
(c) Article 269 (d) Article 169
87. The Proposal relating to dismissal of the Vice President can be presented in
(a) Any House of the Parliament
(b) Rajya Sabha
(c) The Lok Sabha
(d) None of the above
88. 'The Directive Principles of State Policy is a cheque which is paid on Bank's Convenience.Who told it?
(a) B.R. Ambedkar (b) K.M. Munshi
(c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (d) K.T. Seth
89. When the Supreme Court issues a writ to a person or to an institution to perform its duty, it is: called
(a) Certiorari (b) Mandamus
(c) Quo Warranto (d) Habeas Corpus
90. Which one of the following has the power to initiate the Motion of Impeachment of the President of India?
(a) Both the Houses of the Parliament
(b) Lok Sabha
(c) Rajya Sabha
(d) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
91. Lok Ayukta of Uttar Pradesh submits his reports to the
(a) Chief Minister
(b) Chief Justice of the High Court
(d) Speaker of the Legislative Assembly
92. The Constitution authorises the President to make provisions for discharge of duties of Governor in extraordinary circumstances under the
(a) Article 160 (b) Article 162
(c) Article 165 (d) Article 310
93. Who of the following moved the 'Objective Resolution' in the Constituent Assembly?
(a) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar (b) Pt Jawahar Lai Nehru
(c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (d) Dr. C D. Deshmukh
94. Which one of the following is not the main jurisdiction of the High Court of a State ?
(a) Advisory jurisdiction
(b) Original jurisdiction
(c) Supervisory jurisdiction
(d) Appellate jurisdiction
95. Which of the following is correctly matched ?
(a) Part-II of the : Fundamental Constitution Rights
(b) Part-Ill of the : Citizenship Constitution
(c) Part-IV A of the : Fundamental Duties Constitution
(d) Part-V of the : Directive Principle Constitution of the State Policy
96. Which of the Constitutional Provision lays down that taxes can neither be levied nor collected without the authority of law ?
(a) Article 265 (b) Article 266
(c) Article 300 (d) Article 368
97. Which one of the following is not a constitutional prerogative of the President of India ?
(a) Returning an ordinary Bill for reconsideration
(b) Returning a financial bill for reconsideration
(c) Dissolving the Lok Sabha
(d) Appointing the Prime Minister
98. Which one of the following is not a constitutional body?
(a) The Human Rights Commission
(b) Finance Commission of a State
(c) The Lok Sabha Secretariat
(d) Finance Commission at the Centre
99. In the General Election 2009 election for 543 Lok Sabha Constituencies were held. Out of these, how many Lok Sabha Constituencies are from the States ?
(a) 525 (b) 528
(c) 530 (d) 532
100. Under which of the following circumstances can the President declare an emergency ?
1. External aggression
2. Internal disturbances
3. Failure of the constitutional machinery in States
4. Financial crisis
Choose the correct answer from the code given below:
(a) 1,2and 3 (b) 1.3and 4
(c) 2. 3 and 4 (d) 1.2and 4
101. Which one of the following is not a Fundamental Duty ?
(a) To respect the National Anthem
(b) To safeguard public property
(e) To protect monuments and places of public importance
(d) To protect and improve the natural environment
102. Given below are two statements :
Assertion (A) : The President is the part of the Parliament.
Reason (R) : A Bill passed by the two Houses of Parliament cannot become law without the assent of the President.
In the context of the above, which one of the following is correct ?
(a) Both (A) and (R) arc lure and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
103. Which of the following are the Financial Committees of Parliament in India ?
1. Public Account Committee
2. Estimates Committee
3. Committee on Public Undertakings
Select the correct answer from the code given below :
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1.2and 3
104. Which among the following is an asset for a Commercial Bank ?
(a) Credit to farmers
(b) Deposits of public
(c) Borrowings from R.B.I.
(d) Demand deposits of Industries
105. What is the theme of the Eleventh Five Year Plan for education sector ?
(a) Education for all
(b) Education with sports
(c) Compulsory elementary education
(d) Vocationalisation of education
106. "Ecology is permanent economy" is the slogan of which movement ?
(a) Appiko Movement
(b) Narmada Bad Andolan
(c) Chipko Movement
(d) None of the above
107. The licensing policy for the industries drew strength from
(a) Industrial Policy Resolution 1948
(b) Industrial Policy Resolution 1956
(c) Congress Party Resolution of establishing socialistic pattern of society
(d) Industries Act 1951
108. Consider the following sources of Revenue of the Panchayats:
1. Local Authority Grant by Finance Commission
2. Assistance by Central Cooperative Banks
3. Allocations for centrally sponsored schemes
5. Allocation from State Finance Commission
Of the above, the correct sources of Finance for Panchayats would be
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 (b) only 1 and 2
(c) 1, 2 and 5 (d) 1, 2. 4 and 5
109. Who wrote a book describing the theory of economic drain of India during British rule ?
(a) LalaLajpatRai (b) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) Pt. Jawahar Lai Nehru (d) Dadabhai Naoroji
110. The extent of money transfer to the States out of sharable pool of Tax Collection according to, the12th Finance Commission has been fixed at
(a) 29.0 percent (b) 29.5 percent
(c) 30, 5 percent (d) 32.0 percent
111. In India, Foreign Investment Promotion Board now works under
(a) Reserve Bank of India
(b) Ministry of External Affairs
(c) Ministry of Commerce
(d) Ministry of Finance
112. In India, between 2001 to 2005, growth rate of which sector has consistently increased 7
(a) Agriculture (b) Industry
(c) Services (d) None of the above
113. Name the Indian Economist who won the Leontif Award 2009. Earlier this award had been won by persons such as J.K. Galbraith, AmartyaSen and others.
(a) Dr, Manmohan Singh (b) ShantaSinha
(c) Shankar Acharya (d) BinaAgarwal
114. With what sujbect is Raghuram Rajan Committee connected ?
(a) Austerity in Government Expenditure
(b) Financial Sector Reforms
(c) Export-Import balance
(d) Rising Prices
115. In the year 2006-07, the share of nuclear energy generated in India in the total energy generated was
(a) less than 3 percent
(b) between 3 and 4 percent
(c) between 4 and 6 percent
(d) between 6 and 8 percent
116. In which Five Year Plan, Economic Development rate was maximum ?
(a) First Five Year Plan (b) Sixth Five Year Plan
(c) Tenth Five Year Plan (d) Fourth Five Year Plan
117. A commercial deal christened "Peace Pipeline" has been signed recently in the first half of 2009.Identify the pipeline from the following list:
(a) Russia to Europe (b) Azerbaijan to Turkey
(c) Myanmar to China (d) None of the above
118. In which one of the year 'Rolling Plan' was in operation in India ?
(a) '968-69 (b) 1978-79
(c) 1988-89 (d) 1990-91
119. In relation to the previous year growth rate in exports from the functioning of special Economic Zones was highest in which year ?
(a) 2004-05 (b) 2005-06
(c) 2006-07 (d) 2007-08
120. The targetted annual growth rate of agricultural production in India in the 11lh Plan is
(a) 5 percent (b) 4 percent
(c). 2 percent (d) 3percenf
121. Which State is the largest producer of 'Tobacco 'in India ?
(a) Karnataka (b) Maharashtra
(c) Uttar Pradesh (d) Tamil Nadu
122. The Government of India has recently acquired the RBI's stake in
(b) State Bank of India
(c) Housing Finance Corporation
123. Free trade zone is one
(a) where trade is done without restriction
(b) where any entrepreneur our is free to start industries
(c) where infrastructural facilities are provided free to entrepreneurs by the government
(d) where industries are free from excise duties and produce for exports
124. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the code given below :
Finance Commission Chairman
A. 9th 1. N.P.K. Salve
B. 10th 2. C. Rangarajan
C. 11th 3. K.C. Pant
D. 12th 4. A.M. Khusro
A B C D
(a) 1 3 4 2
(b) 1 2 4 3
(c) 2 3 4 1
(d) 1 2 3 4
125. The Government of India has replaced FERA by
(a) 1he Competition Act (b) The FEMA
(c) The Monopolies Act (d) The MRTP Act
126. The objective of the new Foreign Trade Policy is to increase India's share in the World Trade by2009 to
(a) 1.00% (b) 1.25%
(c) 1.50% (d) 2.00%
127. The Forex Reserves in India have been witnessing continuous growth due to following reasons:
1. Rise in FDI inflows
2. Gifts from Foreign Countries
3. High interest regime in the country
4. Huge inflows of Flls funds
5. Remittances from Indians working abroad
Select the correct answer from the given code :
(a) 1, 3, 4, 5 (b) 1, 2, 3, 4
(c) 1, 2, 4, 5 (d) 2, 3, 4.5
128. The Apex Organisation for Marketing Cooperatives at the national level is
(c) National Cooperative Union
(d) National Agricultural Marketing Board
129. Golden Hand Shake Scheme 'in India is related with
(a) Voluntary Retirement
(b) Indian Gold Dealers
(c) Foreign Gold Dealers in India
(d) Promoting Trade in Gold
130. Which of the following systems of Note-issue is followed by RBI ?
(a) Proportional Reserve System
(b) Minimum Reserve System
(c) Fixed Fiduciary System
(d) None of the above
131. Given below are a few abbreviations and the areas with which they are associated. Match them properly using the given code :
A. OGL, FOB 1. Employment
B. SJRY, TRYSEM 2. External trade
C. WPI.CPI 3. Banking
D. CRR, SLR 4. Index numbers
A B C D
(a) 2 1 4 3
(b) 2 4 3 1
(c) 4 3 2 I
(d) 3 2 1 4
132. The World Bank has recently sanctioned e loan of 944 million dollars to India, for which of the following sectors, the loan is not meant for ?
(a) Rural finance system
(b) Vocational Training Programmes
(c) Community-based water management projects
(d) Rural roads and sanitation
133. The Banks are required to maintain a certain ratio between their cash in hand and total assets. This is called
(a) SLR (b) SBR
(c) CBR (d) CLR
134. The gas used for artificial ripening of green fruits is
(a) Ethane (b) Carbon-dioxide
(c) Acetylene (d) Ethylene
135. The "Pace Maker" is also knows as
(a) S. A. Nodes (b) A. V. Nodes
(c) Bundle of His (d) Chordaetendinal
134. Scientists of the Chandra Shekhar Azad University of Agriculture and Technology have developed a substance that can reduce the percentage of flower droppings in pulses so as to enhance pulse production. Which is that substance ?
(a) An insecticide called TIVA
(b) A fertilizer called TIVA
(c) A nutrient mixture called TIVA
(d) A growth hormone called TIVA
137. The street 'Kalaiwala' gives shining appearance by rubbing a shining silvery material. What is this material made up of ?
(a) Zinc (b) Tin
(c) Lead (d) Aluminium
138. What is the pH level of blood of a normal person?
(a) 8.25-8.35 (b) 4.5-4.6
(c) 6.45-6.55 (d) 7.35-7.45
139. Consider the following statements in respect of a jet engine and a rocket:
1. A jet engine uses the surrounding air for its oxygen supply and so is unsuitable for motion in space
2. A rocket carries its own supply of oxygen in the gas from as fuel.
Which of the above statements are correct ?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
140. Acid rain is due to air pollution by
(a) Carbon dioxide (b) Carbon monox.de
(c) Methane (d) Nitrous oxide and sulphur dioxide
141. The percentage of water in an adult human body is around
(a) 10% (b) 30%
(c) 65% (d) 75%
142. Which of the following produces more severe burns ?
(a) Boiling water (b) Steam
(c) Hot air (d) Sun rays
143. Plants absorb most part of water needed by them through their
(a) Embryonic zone (b) Growing point
(c) Zone of elongation (d) Root hairs
144. The heritable disease is
(a) Diphtheria (b) Jaundice
(c) Hemophilia (d) Whooping Cough
145. The walls of the hall built for music concerts should
(a) amplify sound (b) transmit sound
(c) reflect sound (d) absorb sound
146. Heavy water (Nuclear science)
(a) contains more dissolved air
(b) contains deuterium in place of hydrogen
(c) contains more dissolved minerals and salts
(d) contains organic impurities
147. In India, water desalination plant is located in
(a) Lakshadweep (b) Goa
(c) Cuttack (d) Chennai
148. A device which converts electrical energy into mechanical energy Is
(a) dynamo (b) generator
(c) induction coil (d) motor
149. The device by which data are transferred by telephone with the help of binary signals, is
(a) Modem (b) Analog
(c) Monitor (d) O.C.R.
150. The technique used to transmit audio signals in television broadcasts is
(a) Amplitude Modulation
(b) Pulse Code Modulation
(c) Frequency Modulation
(d) Time Division Multi flexing