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UPTET 2018 Answer Key [Updated]: Paper - 1 & Paper - 2

Dec 3, 2018 16:02 IST
UPTET 2018 Answer Key: Paper 1 and Paper 2

Check official UPTET answer key 2018 (Question Paper 1 & Paper 2, Set - A, B, C, D). UPBEB has released it in its official website upbasiceduboard.gov.in. Candidates seeking official UPTET 2018 answer key can check it. With the help of it, one easily calculate his or her expected score in UPTET Result 2018.

UPTET Answer Key 2018 (Official): Paper 1 [Updated]

UPTET Answer Key 2018 (Official): Paper 2 [Updated]

Official UPTET Answer Key 2018: (PDF) Paper 1

Official UPTET Answer Key 2018: (PDF) Paper 2

UPTET 2018 Cut-off: Check Passing Marks for UPTET

UPTET 2018: Question Paper Analysis, Review

UPTET Answer Key 2018: Paper 1 (by Experts)

PART- I

1. Kohler wanted to prove that learning is

(1) a situation in which individuals are superior to animals

(2) an autonomous random activity

(3) cognitive operation

(4) the perception of different parts of the situation

Answer: (4)

2. From where to start in order to learn any new language?

(1) Association between letters and words

(2) Formation of sentences

(3) Formation of words

(4) None of the above

Answer: (1)

3. Which type(s) of students is/ate included in inclusive class?

(1) Only specific students

(2) General and specific students

(3) Only general students

(4) Mulblinguistic and gifted students

Answer: (2)

4. From the following, which term defines the mathematics related learning disability?

(1) Dystopia

(2) Dyslexia

(3) Dyscalculia

(4) None of the above

Answer: (3)

5. Successful inclusion needs

(1) lack of capacity building

(2) no involvement of parents

(3) segregation

(4) sensitization

Answer: (4)

6. Which of the following is not the element of emotion?

(1) Behavioural

(2) Physical

(3) Cognitive

(4) Sensory

Answer: (2)

7. Which is the correct sequence of cognitive domain?

(1) Knowledge-Application-Comperhension-Analysis-Synthesis-Evaluation

(2) Evaluation-Application-Analysis-Synthesis-Comprehension Knowledge

(3) Evaluation-Synthesis-Analysis-Application-Comprehension-Knowledge

(4) Knowledge-Comprehension-Application-Analysis-Synthesis-Evaluation

Answer: (4)

8. Which of the following is not a quality of good teaching?

(1) Autocratic

(2) Democratic

(3) Sympathetic

(4) Desirable information provider

Answer: (3)

9. Expectancy theory of motivation has been given by

(1) Victor Vroom

(2) Maslow

(3) Herzberg

(4) Skinner

Answer: (1)

10. To which family advance organizer model is related with?

(1) Personal

(2) Social interaction

(3) Information processing

(4) Behaviour modification

Answer: (4)

11. Which is useful in the transformation of skills?

(1) Skills transformation is a journey, not a destination

(2) Linear Programme

(3) Branching Programme

(4) Preparation and acquisition

Answer: (3)

12. Which one is not the maxim of teaching from the following?

(1) From simple to complex

(2) From indefinite to definite

(3) From seen to unseen

(4) From deduction to induction

Answer: (4)

13. First step of microteaching cycle is

(1) feedback

(2) teaching

(3) planning

(4) introduction

Answer: (3)

14. Which of the following is included in the teaching of understanding level?

(1) Abstraction

(2) Application

(3) Comparison

(4) Exploration

Answer: (2)

15. For educational reforms effective decentralization is possible by

A. greater involvement of cluster and block resource centres

B. availability of local resource person

C. resource and reference material for the use of teachers

Choose the correct answer

(1) A and C

(2) A and B

(3) B and C

(4) A, B and C

Answer: (4)

16. A student is reading, someone called him by name. By which sensation he (student) will respond from the following?

(1) Visual sensation

(2) Tactual sensation

(3) Auditory sensation

(4) Perceptual sensation

Answer: (2)

17. What is the age of preoperational stage in Piaget theory?

(1) Four to eight years

(2) Birth to two years

(3) Two to seven years

(4) Five to eight years

Answer: (3)

18. Which of the following is not characteristic of intellectual development of later childhood?

(1) Operational planning of career

(2) High Interest in Science fiction

(3) Increased logical power

(4) End of Imaginary fears

Answer: (1)

19. Which of the following psychologists is associated with language development?

(1) Pavlov

(2) Bennet

(3) Chomsky

(4) Maslow

Answer: (3)

20. Thorndike proved his theory titled

(1) cognitive learning

(2) trial and error learning

(3) sign learning

(4) space learning

Answer: (2)

21. Gang age associated with age and delayed development is

(1) 16-19 years and morality

(2) 3-6 years and language

(3) 8-10 years and socialization

(4) 16-19 years and cognitive

Answer: (3)

22. Which of the following Is the third stage of cognitive development according to Piaget?

(1) Formal operational stage

(2) Pre-operational stage

(3) Concrete operational stage

(4) Sensory motor stage

Answer: (3)

23. Which is not included in psychological factors that contribute in learning from the following?

(1) learning desire

(2) Motivation

(3) Interest

(4) Nature of content

Answer: (4)

24. Which of the following is a social value?

(1) Altruism

(2) Primary goal

(3) Instinct

(4) Aggression need

Answer: (1)

25. Backward exploration and means-end analysis are examples of which of the following

(1) Heuristics

(2) Algorithms

(3) Mental sets

(4) Functional Fixedness

Answer:  (2)

26. “Curves of learning give graphic representation of the amount, rate and limit of improvement brought about by practice.” Who said it?

(1) Skinner

(2) Ross

(3) Ebbinghaus

(4) M. L. Bigge

Answer:  (3)

27. Which one is not included in Thorndike's primary laws of learning from the following?

(1) Law of associative shifting

(2) Law of exercise

(3) Law of effect

(4) law of readiness

Answer: (1)

28. Conditioned response theory lays emphasis on conditioning of

(1) reasoning

(2) behaviour

(3) thinking

(4) motivation

Answer: (2)

29. The other name of operant conditioning is

(1) contiguous conditioning

(2) instrumental conditioning

(3) classical conditioning

(4) trace conditioning

Answer: (2)

30. Which of the following is not a characteristic of learning?

(1) Learning is directly observed

(2) Learning is a relatively permanent change in behaviour

(3) Learning is a growth of organism

(4) Learning is a goal directed process

Answer: (3)

Part II: Language I Hindi

31. कवि और उसकी रचना का कौन-सा जोड़ा सही नहीं है?

(1) शिवराज भूषण–भूषण

(2) शब्द रसायन—देव

(3) परिमल—सूर्यकांत त्रिपाठी “निराला'

(4) उद्धव शतक – भारतेन्दु हरिश्चंद्र

Answer: (4)

32. लेखक और उसकी कृति के युग्म में कौन-सा युग्म गलत है?

(1) बोल्गा से गंगा - राहुल सांकृत्यायन

(2) सूरज का सातवाँ घोड़ा - धर्मवीर भारती

(3) आर्यों का आदि देश – डॉ सम्पूर्णानंद

(4) दर्शन दिग्दर्शन – रामचंद्र शुक्ल

Answer:  (4)

33. विराम-चिह्न की दृष्टि से कौन-सा वाक्य अशुद्ध है?

(1) वह ईमानदार, परिश्रमी, कर्मठ और मृदुभाषी है।

(2) उसके पास धन-वैभव, नौकर-चाकर आदि सभी कुछ था।

(3) हाँ मेरा यही विचार है।

(4) आप हमारे घर आना चाहते हैं, तो आइए; ठहरना चाहते हैं, तो ठहरिए।

Answer: (3)

34. कौन-सा शब्द भिन्न अर्थ और प्रकृति का है?

(1) चिरंतन

(2) शाश्वत

(3) सनातन

(4) अधुनातन

Answer: (4)

35. ‘अर्वाचीन' शब्द का विलोम होगा:

(1) प्राचीन

(2) अद्यतन

(3) अधुनातन

(4) सनातन

Answer: (1)

36. व्याकरण की दृष्टि से कौन-सा शब्द अशुद्ध है?

(1) विरहणी

(2) गृहिणी

(3) विभीषण

(4) जगद्गुरु

Answer: (1)

37. निम्न में से कौन-सा युग्म गलत है?

(1) लुटिया डूबना - सारा काम चौपट होना

(2) सब्ज बाग दिखलाना–हरा-भरा करना

(3) मुट्ठी गरम करना—रिश्वत देना

(4) माई का लाल - साहसी व्यक्ति

Answer: (2)

38. मेरी भव बाधा हरौ, राधा नागरि सोय।

जातन की झाँई परै, स्याम हरित दुति होय ।।

उपर्युक्त दोहे में कौन-सा अलंकार है?

(1) अन्योक्ति

(2) यमक

(3) श्लेष

(4) रूपक

Answer: (3)

39. 'गौशाला' में कौन-सा समास है?

(1) तत्पुरुष

(2) द्वंद्व

(3) बहुव्रीहि

(4) द्विगु

Answer: (1)

40. “देशभक्ति' में कौन-सा समास है?

(1) द्वंद्व

(2) कर्मधारय

(3) तत्पुरुष

(4) द्विगु

Answer: (3)

41. 'प्रागैतिहासिक' में किस उपसर्ग का प्रयोग है?

(1) प्राक्

(2) प्राग

(3) प्रा

(4) प्रागैति

Answer: (1)

42. ‘तुलसीदास’ किसकी कविता है?

(1) मुक्तिबोध

(2) अज्ञेय

(3) हरिवंशराय बच्चन

(4) सूर्यकांत त्रिपाठी निराला

Answer: (4)

43. 'बहिष्कार' का संधि-विच्छेद क्या है?

(1) वहिः + ष्कार

(2) बहिष् + अकार

(3) बहिः + कार

(4) बहिर् + कार

Answer: (3)

44. 'वैदेही वनवास' किसकी रचना है?

(1) अयोध्या सिंह उपाध्याय 'हरिऔध'

(2) रामधारी सिंह 'दिनकर'

(3) मैथिलीशरण गुप्त

(4) श्रीधर पाठक

Answer: (1)

45. निम्न में से पुल्लिंग शब्द का चयन कीजिये:

(1) पहिया

(2) लिखावट

(3) पखावज

(4) मँझदार

Answer: (1)

निर्देश (प्रश्न सं० 46 और 47) : दिए गए गद्यांश को पदक निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों के सही विकल्प छाँटिए। स्पष्टता, आत्मविश्वास, विषय की अच्छी पकड , प्रभावशाली भाषा में अपने विचारों और भावनाओं को करना ही सम्प्रेषण-कला है, जो निरंतर अभ्यास से निखारी सकती है। एक दिन में कोई अच्छा वक्ता नहीं बन सकता ? भाषा पर अनायास ही किसी की पकड़ नहीं हो पाती। अभ्यास से स्वामी विवेकानंद ने जिस सम्प्रेषण-कला का विक किया था, उसने विश्वधर्म-सम्मेलन में लाखों अमेरिका-निवासियों को चकित और मोहित कर दिया था।

46. सम्प्रेषण-कला क्या नहीं है?

(1) अलंकरण

(2) आत्म-विश्वास

(3) प्रभावशाली भाषा

(4) विचारों और भावनाओं को व्यक्त करना

Answer: (1)

47. सम्प्रेषण-कला का विकास किससे होता है?

(1) अभ्यास

(2) भाषण

(3) अनायास

(4) विषय की अच्छी पकड़

Answer: (1)

48. निम्न में संयुक्त व्यंजन कौन-सा नहीं है?

(1) य

(2) क्ष

(3) त्र

(4) ज्ञ

Answer: (1)

49. 'मृत्युंजय' पद में कौन-सा समास है?

(1) द्विगु

(2) कर्मधारय

(3) बहुव्रीहि

(4) द्वंद्व

Answer: (3)

50. 'अलंकार' में किस उपसर्ग का प्रयोग है?

(1) अल्

(2) अल

(3) अलन्

(4) अलम्

Answer: (4)

51. यह पुस्तक किसकी है? में रेखांकित शब्द का पद-परिचय दीजिए :

(1) सार्वनामिक विशेषण (पुस्तक विशेष्य), एकवचन, स्त्रीलिंग

(2) सर्वनाम, एकवचन, स्त्रीलिंग

(3) गुणवाचक विशेषण (पुस्तक विशेष्य), एकवचन

(4) सम्बोधन अव्यय

Answer: (1)

52. ‘विश्लेषण' शब्द का विलोम होगा:

(1) विवेचन

(2) संश्लेषण

(3) व्याख्या

(4) विभाजित

Answer: (2)

53. जिनका उच्चारण ऊपर के दाँतों पर जीभ लगाने से होता है, उसे क्या कहते हैं?

(1) कंठ्य

(2) दन्त्य

(3) मूर्धन्य

(4) अनुनासिक

Answer: (3)

54. निम्नलिखित में से 'ऊष्म व्यंजन' कौन-से हैं?

(1) श-ष-स

(2) अ-ब-स

(3) च-छ–ज

(4) य–र–ल

Answer: (1)

55. 'अत्यधिक' का विलोम क्या है?

(1) अत्यल्प

(2) अत्याधिक

(3) अनधिगत

(4) अनधीन

Answer: (1)

56. 'ऋत' का विलोम क्या है?

(1) अनृत

(2) वक्र

(3) विकीर्ण

(4) अनैक्य

Answer: (1)

57. 'संकल्प' शब्द में उपसर्ग बताइए:

(1) सम्

(2) सक

(3)  सन

(4) संक

Answer: (1)

58. मुझसे खड़ा भी हुआ नहीं जाता। इस वाक्य का वाच्य

होगा :

(1) भाववाच्य

(2) कर्मवाच्य

(3) कर्तृवाच्य

(4) अन्य

Answer: (1)

59. तद्भव और उसके तत्सम का कौन-सा मेल गलत है?

(1) लौंग लवंग

(2) आँत–अंत्र

(3) लुनाई–लावण्यता

(4) आयसु-आदेश

Answer: (3)

60. लेखक और उसकी रचना का कौन-सा जोड़ा गलत है?

(1) संस्कृति के चार अध्याय-रामधारी सिंह 'दिनकर'

(2) रसज्ञ-रंजन–आचार्य महावीर प्रसाद द्विवेदी

(3) स्कन्दगुप्त- लक्ष्मीनारायण मिश्र

(4) अशोक के फूल–आचार्य हजारी प्रसाद द्विवेदी

Answer: (3)

Part – III: Language II ENGLISH

61. What is the main purpose of poetry recitation in a language classroom?

(1) To pm their opinions about poem

(2) To know the historical background of the poem

(3) To enjoy and appreciate the poem

(4) To become aware of the poet and his / her work

Answer: (3)

62. Fill in the blanks with the correct article yesterday I saw______ European riding on elephant

(1) a, a

(2) the, the

(3) a, an

(4) a, the

Answer: (3)

63. Choose the Correct Sentence

(1) Please describe of the story.

(2) Please describe about the story.

(3) Please describe the story.

(4) Please describe to the story.

Answer: (3)

64. Fill in the blank with preposition:

A prisoner was accused_______murder

(1) to

(2) of

(3) for

(4) off

Answer: (2)

65. The antonym of innocent is

(1) active

(2) clever

(3) ignorant

(4) guilty

Answer: (4)

66. The synonym of ‘significant’ is

(1) efficient

(2) prominent

(3) magnificent

(4) important

Answer: (4)

67. Which one of the following words can be made plural by adding a suffix in

(1) Max

(2) Box

(3) Tax

(4) Ox

Answer: (4)

68. Choose the correct pronoun to complete the following sentence:

This dress is________and that one is mine.

(1) your

(2) our book

(3)  yours

(4) your book

Answer: (3)

69. Choose the following sentence into passive voice:

Have the girls asked this question?

(1) Has this question asked by the girls?

(2) This question have asked by girls.

(3) Has this question been asked by the girls

(4) Have this question asked by the girls

Answer: (3)

Direction: Read the passage given and answer the questions that follow Question Nos. 70 and 71) it.

Yesterday, two brave children of Gangapur were awarded Brave Hearts Award. They have exhibited a great spirit of selflessness and courage. Harsh, a twelve-year-old boy, saved a little girl from drowning in the river that flows along has village. Maims has been awarded for her presence of mind.

70. Which kind of noun is Gangapur?

(1) Material noun

(2) Common noun

(3) Collective noun

(4) Proper noun

Answer: (4)

71. Which part of speech as the word ‘brave’?

(1) Adjective

(2) Noun

(3) Pronoun

(4) Preposition

Answer: (1)

72. Which of the following words is a material noun?

(1) Air

(2) Cow

(3) Gold

(4) Class

Answer: (3)

73. Which of the following words is an abstract noun?

(1) Woman

(2) Connection

(3) Boy

(4) Plough

Answer: (2)

74. Which kind of noun is ‘adversity’?

(1) Abstract noun

(2) Common noun

(3) Proper noun

(4) Collective noun

Answer: (1)

75. Which part of speech is the word hard in the sentence ‘He is working hard’?

(1) Preposition

(2) Adverb

(3) Conjunction

(4) Noun

Answer:  (2)

76. Which of the following sentence has a conjunction?

(1) She is poor but she is by nature hospitable

(2) She is awfully busy

(3) I am nobody for you

(4) My grandfather is not well.

Answer: (1)

77. Point out the sentence which is in present perfect tense?

(1) your sister visited us yesterday

(2) I shall go to Jaunpur tomorrow

(3) she is very intelligent.

(4) I have finished my work

Answer: (4)

78. Which of the following is misspelt word?

(1) Derogatary

(2) Desiccation

(3) Descendant

(4) Dermatitis

Answer: (1)

79. Which of the following sentence has transitive verb?

(1) She writes well.

(2) She walks in the morning daily.

(3) He is running very fast

(4) I killed a snake last night.

Answer: (4)

80. Which of the following sentence is negative?

(1) He does not listen to me.

(2) I came from a rich family.

(3) You can do all this in no time

(4) They are very gentle people

Answer: (1)

81. Which of the following sentence is exclamatory?

(1) Which is your favorite book

(2) What a piece of work is a man

(3) What do you know about ancient India

(4) He cruelty knew no bounds.

Answer: (1)

82. Point out the complex sentence

(1) She does not sing.

(2) They are very wise people

(3) You know me well.

(4) One who does not love one’s country is wretched person.

Answer: (4)

83. Which of the following word is ‘plural’?

(1) Goat

(2) Dog

(3) Fox

(4) Mice

Answer: (4)

84. Which of the following words is regarded as singular?

(1) Cats

(2) Dogs

(3) Mathematics

(4) Cars

Answer: (3)

85. Which of the following sentences is in active voice?

(1) I requested him to come in time.

(2) He was asked to keep quiet.

(3) A house was bought for fifty Iacs

(4) He was hit badly.

Answer: (1)

86. Which of the following sentences is in passive voice?

(1) He was assisted by a group of students.

(2) Please mind your business.

(3) I kept quiet throughout the meeting.

(4) They came late and lost the match.

Answer: (1)

87. “That is the man the police was seeking “. In the above sentence. what is the status of the two the's?

(1) Conjunction

(2) Verb

 (3) Noun

(4) Definite article

Answer: (4)

88. “These students are most disobedient” In the above sentence, point out the gender of the word ‘students’

(1) Masculine gender

(2) Feminine gender

(3) Common gender

(4) None of the above

Answer: (4)

89. In the sentence ‘He was going along the road', point out the tense

(1) Past continuous

(2) Present perfect

(3) Past perfect

(4) Future indefinite

Answer: (1)

90. Language learning starts from

(1) listening

(2) writing

(3) reading

(4) speaking

Answer: (1)

91. In the given figure PAQ is the tangent of the circle at point A and ABCD is cyclic quadrilateral.

If∠CAQ = 700, then ABC is

(1) 110

(2) 70

(3) 80

(4) 90

Answer: 110o

92. If the cost price of 8 pens is sane as the selling price of 6 pens, then the gain percent is

(1) 33 1/3 %

(2) 11 1/2 %

(3) 33 1/3 %

(4) 33 1/3 %

Answer: (3)

93. Which of the following rational number does not lie between 3/5 and 4/5?

(1) 7/10

(2) 19/10

(3) 2/3

(4) 16/30

Answer: (4)

94. If the price of 3 pens, 2 pencils and 4 erasers is rs. 92 and the price of 8 pencils and 16 erasers is rs. 68 then the price of 24 pens is

(1) Rs. 675

(2) Rs. 625

(3) Rs. 500

(4) Rs. 600

Answer: (4)

95. Which cannot construct a triangle, If we are given

(1) only three angles

(2) two angles and one side

(3) only these sides

(4) two sides and included angle

Answer: (1)

96. If the length and breadth of a rectangular plot are increased by 50% and 20% respectively, then how many times will its area be increased?

(1) 4/5

(2) 1 4/5

(3) 11/5

(4) 1/5

Answer:  (2)

97. The temperature of a normal human body is 37℃, In Fahrenheit scale, this temperature is

(1) 98 ℉

(2) 98.4 ℉

(3) 98.6 ℉

(4) 98.8 ℉

Answer:  (3)

98. If 12+22+_92 = 285, then the value of (0.11)2 + (0.22)2 + (0.99)2 is

(1) 3.4485

(2) 2.4485

(3) 0.24485

(4) 0.34485

Answer: (1)

99. A sum of money at simple interest doubles in 10 years, in how many years, at the same rate. It will be tripled

(1) 20 years

(2) 30 years

(3) 25 years

(4) 15 years

Answer: (1)

100. In a circular park of diameter 80 in. there is a square-shaped playground of maximum area. The area of the playground is

(1) 3200 m2

(2) 6400 m2

(3) 1600 m2

(4) 12800 m2

Answer: (1)

101. In an examination of 240 marks, a student scored 52 marks. In pie-chart, the corresponding angle Is (1) 63°

(2) 75°

(3) 78°

(4) (21 2/3)

Answer: (3)

102. If P% of P is 36, then P is equal to

(1) 15

(2) 3600

(3) 600

(4) 60

Answer: 60

103. lf 2352 = 2x x 3y x 72, then the value of x+ y + r is

(1) 8

(2) 5

(3) 7

(4) 9

Answer: (3)

104. The number of even divisors of 100 will be

(1) 7

(2) 6

(3) 5

(4) 8

Answer: (3)

105. How many cubes of side 3 cm can be separated from a cube of side 15 cm?

(1) 125

(2) 25

(3) 27

(4) 144

Answer: (1)

106. If 31689 is divided by 7, then remainder is

(1) 8

(2) 7

(3) 6

(4) 144

Answer: (3)

107. The sum of interior angles of a polygon is 2160. The number of sides of the polygon is

(1) 14

(2) 12

(3) 13

(4) 15

Answer: (1)

108. The least non-negative prime integer is

(1) 2

(2) 0

(3) 1

(4) 3

Answer: (1)

109. (1½ +11½ +111½ +1111½ ) is equal to

 (1) 1263

(2)  1236

(3)  1233

(4) 1239

Answer: (1)

110. If a x b = a2+ b2-ab for all natural numbers a and b, then the value of 9 x 10 is

(1) 181

(2)  90

(3)  91

(4) 182

Answer: (3)

111. If x and y are non-zero real numbers, then x2+xy+y2

(1) is always positive

(2) is always negative

(3) takes the value zero for some x and y

(4) takes both positive and negative values

Answer: (1)

112. The number at the place of * in adjoining figure will be

(1) 10

(2) 8

(3) 9

(4) 11

Answer: (4)

113. If for any two natural numbers a and b, ab = 125, then ba is

(1) 243

(2) 241

(3) 242

(4) 247

Answer: (1)

114. The least number, divisible by all the natural numbers from 1 to 10, is

(1) 1000

(2) 5040

(3) 2520

(4) 100

Answer: (3)

115. If it is Friday on 4/8/2017, then what will be the day after 61 days?

(1) Thursday

(2) Tuesday

(3) Wednesday

(4) Friday

Answer: (3)

116. In the given figure

AB  CD, then the value of y-x is

(1) 30

(2) 10

(3) 20

(4) 40

Answer: (2)

117. If by selling an article for Rs. 390, a shopkeeper gains 20%, then the cost price of article is

(1) Rs. 324

(2) Rs. 321

(3) Rs. 323

(4) Rs. 325

Answer: (4)

118. If the population of a town has increased from 60000 to 65000, then the increase in population (in percent) is

(1) 7 1/2  

(2) 7 9/13

(3) 8 1/3

(4) 8 1/9

Answer: (3)

119. 40 persons consume 200 kg of rice in 30 days. In how many days will 30 persons consume 500 kg of rice?

(1) 90

(2) 120

(3) 80

(4) 100

Answer: (4)

120. In a rhombus, the lengths of diagonals are 16 cm and 12 cm. The side of the rhombus is

(1) 9 cm

(2) 7 cm

(3) 8 cm

(4) 10 cm

Answer: (4)

121. Plants are green due to the presence of which pigment?

(1) Anthocyanin

(2) Carotenoid

 (3) Lycopene

(4) Chlorophyll

Answer: (4)

122. Human activities that cause climate change on the earth include

(1) use of aerosol cans

(2) burning of forests

(3) agricultural activities

(4) All of the above

Answer: (4)

123. Which crop belonging to the family Euphorbiaccae is known for producing biodiesel?

(1) Copper leaf

(2) Jatropha

(3) Candlenut tree

(4) Sarpagandha

Answer: (2)

124. The Queen of Herbs' is the most sacred herb of India. This medicinal plant has importance in Hindu mythology and has the scientific name Ocimum Sanctum. What is it commonly called?

(1) Thyme

(2) Tulsi

(3) Rosemary

 (4) Coriander

Answer: (2)

125. The water that is safe to drink is called

(1) Fresh water

(2) potable Water

(3) distilled water

(4) tap water

Answer: (2)

126. The Bhopal Gag Tragedy of 1984 due to the leakage of was following gases?

(1) Methane

(2) Methyl isocyanate

(3) Nitrous oxide

(4) Carbon monoxide

Answer: (2)

127. The world Environment Day Falls on

(1) 5th June

(2) 2nd December 2018

(3) 16th September 2018

(4) 11 July

Answer: (1)

128. M.S. Swaminathan was

(1) an ecologist

(2) a journalist

(3) an agricultural scientist

(4) an ornithologist

Answer: (3)

129. Where is Wild life Institute of India (WII) located?

(1) Ahmadabad

(2) New Delhi

(3) Coimbatore

(4) Dehradun

Answer: (4)

130. During photosynthesis, which of the following is absorbed by green plants?

(1) Carbon dioxide

(2) Helium

(3) Nitrogen

(4) Oxygen

Answer: (1)

131. The organism which feed on the waste products are called

(1) herbivores

(2) detrivores

(3) carnivores

(4) chemovores

Answer: (4)

132. What type of energy is derived from heated groundwater?

(1) Geothermal Energy

(2) Hydroelectric Energy

(3) Solar Energy

(4) Nuclear Energy

Answer: (3)

133. Shola grasslands are found in

(1) the Himalayas

(2) the Western Ghats

 (3) the Eastern Ghats

(4) the Vindhyans

Answer: (2)

134. In India, pelicans breed in

(1) Kokkare Bellur

(2) Nelapattu

(3) Koonthankulam

(4) All of the above

Answer: (4)

135. ‘Minamata disease’ was caused by eating fish which have high levels of

(1) cadmium

(2) arsenic

(3) mercury

(4) All of the above

Answer: (3)

136. Maximum ozone depletion has been observed in which of the following?

(1) The Equator

(2) The North Pole

(3) The South Pole

(4) None of the above

Answer: (3)

137. Who among the following was the first Chief Justice of India?

(1) Hiralal J. Kania

(2) M. Patanjali Sastri

(3) Mehr Chand Mahajan

(4) S. R. Das

Answer: (1)

138. The ‘Red Data Book’ is related to

(1) animals near extinction

(2) pollution in rivers

(3) decreasing underground water level

(4) Air pollution

Answer: (1)

139. Who among the following is the present Chairperson of the National Commission for Women?

(1) Malini Bhattacharya

(2) Girija Vyas

(3) Rekha Sharma

(4) Yasmeen Abrar

Answer: (3)

140. The Joint sitting of the Lok Sabha and the Rave Sabha of states is summoned by

(1) the Parliament

(2) the President

(3) the Speaker of the Lok Sabha

(4) the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha

Answer: (2)

(141) Which Part of the Constitution has the provisions for Panchayati Raj System?

(1) III

(2) IX

(3) VI

(4) IV

Answer: (2)

142. 74th Amendment of the Constituton a related to

(1) Powers of the President

(2) Rural Local Self-Government

(3) Urban Local Self-Government

(4) Powers of the Parliament

Answer: (3)

143. Which of the following gases soluble in rainwater causes acidic?

(1) Carbon dioxide

(2) Hydrogen peroxide

(3) Nitrogen mono oxide

(4) SuIpher dioxide

Answer: (4)

144. ‘Rule of Law’ concept has taken in the Indian constitution from

(1) Switzerland

(2) USA

(3) England

(4) Ireland

Answer: (3)

145. Who carries out notification for the election of the Lok Sabha?

(1) Home Ministry

(2) Election Commission of India

(3) The President

(4) Lok Sabha Secretariat

Answer: (2)

146. The first hour of business of the Lok Sabha is known as

(1) Zero hour

(2) Public hour

(3) Privileges hour 

(4) Question hour

Answer: (4)

147. What is Rainwater Harvesting?

(1) Distribution of water

(2) Collection and storage of used Water

(3) Collection and storage of rainwater

(4) None of the above

Answer: (3)

148. Indian Rhinoceros is protected in

(1) Bandipur National Park

(2) Corbett National Park

(3) Kaziranga National Park

(4) Gir National Park

Answer: (3)

149. Which of the following series is true about energy flow in an ecosystem?

(1) Producers---Consumers ---- Decomposers

(2) Producers---Decomposers---Consumers

(3) Decomposers----Consumers--- Producers

(4) Consumers---- Producers---- Decomposers

Answer: (1)

150. Greenhouse gas, which is present in the highest quantity in atmosphere, is

(1) carbon dioxide

(2) propane

(3) ethane

(4) methane

Answer: (1)

Official UPTET Answer Key 2018: Download PDF Paper 1

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